Posted 2011-July-05, 17:25
First of all, this is a very unusual "double negative" if a King is possible. Most play that the call denies a King or as much as two Queens. But, an agreement does not cause the disaster if the agreement is not at fault. Many of those who claim system fault so far seem biased by a love of their own techniques rather than offering a fair critique of the sequence.
North seems to be wildly at fault, IMO.
I can accept that somehow a 4♦ call immediately after this 4♣ intervention might somehow not be right. It seems a stretch to not bid here, but I do not see this as the errant call most worthy of underlining.
The errant call is bidding only 5♦ with this hand. Sure -- Responder could have a better hand in this sequence, perhaps ♠xxxxx ♥x ♦Kxxx ♣xxx. But, this is a really good hand, contextually. Partner has bid to the four-level on his own. But, more importantly, Responder has already limited his hand, such that making moves with this hand will not likely be seen as promising Aces that were hiding earlier.
The question faced by Responder might have been how to show this hand. The options were 4♥, 4♠, 4NT, 5♣, 5♦, and something that forced slam. 4♥ is out, because this would be a mere preference bid. 5♦ is out because this is semi-forced. So, what would 4♠, 4NT, or 5♣ show?
I can accept that 4♠ might be construed as a spade card, as that will come up and is useful.
I can also accept that 5♣ might be construed as club shortness, as this also might well come up and is potentially useful (Opener could have 0-6-5-2, for instance). Of course, someone always has club shortness in most auctions like this, but fair enough.
What I cannot grasp would be a conclusion that 4NT is some sort of idiotic ace-asking call here. Why on earth would Responder, known to have at most one King, ever be allowed to ask for Aces? I don't care if the convention card specifically said that 4NT is ace-asking after initially bidding 2♥, as the convention card must have been written out wrong.
So, what is 4NT? IMO, this is OBVIOUSLY the catch-all "red cue." "I have a raise to 5♦, partner, but I have a red card that you might want/need for slam." That alone does the trick.
If Opener had needed even more, he could even "Last Train" back a 5♣ nudge if Responder bids 4NT.
So, 0% system, 100% North for not bidding 4NT. (If 4NT is systemically ALWAYS asking for Aces, AND if 4♠/5♣ show indicated external controls with no ability to show internal controls, then 100% system.)
"Gibberish in, gibberish out. A trial judge, three sets of lawyers, and now three appellate judges cannot agree on what this law means. And we ask police officers, prosecutors, defense lawyers, and citizens to enforce or abide by it? The legislature continues to write unreadable statutes. Gibberish should not be enforced as law."
-P.J. Painter.
mr1303 wrote
2C was strong and artificial, 2H was an artificial negative (0-3 ish).
Who is most to blame for missing the good 6D?
Agree with KenRexford.
North is just worth a positive over 2♣
Over 4♦, North should bid 4N or 5♣ to show slam interest.