barmar, on 2011-April-22, 20:52, said:
Since partner never sees your self-alerts, he doesn't know that you didn't alert it. He doesn't know whether you met his expectation. So if anything, the opponents are in a better position than he is.
I don't think so. If partner thinks it's intended artificial, he expects no Alert, gets no Alert, and is in good shape. If partner thinks it's natural, same statement applies. Partner guesses, and may guess right and may guess wrong, but has no information one way or the other (other than my name, my location, my self-selected skill level, and whatever he can guess from that).
However, the opponents expect an Alert if it's artificial, and none if it's natural - and get no Alert. Because this is information, no matter how inferential or inconclusive it is; and it points toward "natural". They are less likely to guess "they don't have an agreement, and I'm going to guess he means it Artificially" than partner, because they have that information.
Again, all of that is in the context of "I meant it artificially, partner guessed it was artificial, I didn't alert because we have 'no agreement', just a hope".
I'm sitting down to play with somebody from Toronto, and the auction goes 1NT by partner, 2H by me. We have "no agreement", but I'm sure partner's going to take it as a transfer to his (I'm taking it as 15-17) NT - so I don't Alert. Playing against a newly-internet-connected pair from West Lake Mead, UK, where everybody still plays Stone-Age Acol, they really have better chance of getting it right than partner?
That's an extreme case, and it could be argued that it won't happen; but the less extreme cases: 1C-1D; 2D by Messrs. Walesa and Kaczynski would probably get 50+% of Americans (without them even thinking it could be artificial); as would 2C-2D by Tam and Yung from Taiwan (here, they'd probably think it's artificial, but they'd have the strong hand wrong...).
Quote
I'm not sure there's a general solution to this.
With this I agree.
Quote
Suppose you never even discussed what form of Blackwood you're playing -- one of you has 3014 in your profile, the other has 1430. Then your partner bids 4NT, and you have to respond. You have to pick a flavor, and hope partner guesses the same as you. Do you really think you should have to explain your "agreement"? If the opponents ask, the most truthful answer is "your guess is as good as his."
No, although I'd explain that it almost certainly is keycard of one stripe. But on the other hand, I wouldn't not Alert it (were I in a space where responses to Blackwood were self-Alertable).
Actually, I probably would tell them. The fault is either yours, for thinking that if you haven't discussed it, it's keycard (the safe, unambiguous, option is "straight Aces"), or partner's, for choosing to make a bid that won't help him. In neither case is it the opponents' fault that your bidding is going to be unhelpful *to you*.
Here's an alternative. 1H-(1S). You don't know if partner is old-fashioned or novice, and 3H is limit, or whether 2S is, and 3H is preemptive. You're playing in a regime where 3H preemptive is Alertable. Do you bid 3H with your 4-and-4, and not Alert it (and if they ask, explain that "we have no agreement" (but why would they ask?)) or do you not bid, or do you bid it and Alert it, and explain that you have no agreement (but strongly implying that you're weak)? I would say that the second option is going to cost you more than the third (if it happens to be wrong), but that the first is going to lead to TD calls and/or bad feeling. If it's "unfair", so be it.
Long live the Republic-k. -- Major General J. Golding Frederick (tSCoSI)