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NT hand

#1 User is offline   Coelacanth 

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Posted 2010-November-01, 13:00

Matchpoints, you hold



Partner opens 1NT (15-17) in 1st chair.

Do you bid 3NT, invite with 4NT, just blast 6NT, maybe bid Gerber, some other slam investigation tool?

I'll post the actual result a bit later..
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#2 User is offline   nigel_k 

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Posted 2010-November-01, 13:55

It's between 3NT and 4NT. 6NT or Gerber are clearly wrong.

At matchpoints I would probably bid 4NT to stay with the field but at IMPs against good opponents I might just bid 3NT. If I have a range enquiry so can invite with 4NT only when partner has a maximum I would do that.
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#3 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2010-November-01, 14:06

4N. Some good controls and a ten-high meld make this clear I think.
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#4 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2010-November-01, 14:58

View PostPhil, on 2010-November-01, 14:06, said:

4N. Some good controls and a ten-high meld make this clear I think.



ditto
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#5 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2010-November-01, 15:25

I think you should try to find a diamond fit if your methods allow - you might well make twelve tricks in diamonds opposite a minimum. Opposite a maximum it's probably right to be in 6NT.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#6 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2010-November-01, 15:49

I always bid 3NT with these hands and lose 13. I need to move to the other side
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#7 User is offline   nige1 

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Posted 2010-November-01, 20:14

View PostCoelacanth, on 2010-November-01, 13:00, said:

Matchpoints. Partner opens 1NT (15-17) in 1st chair. Do you bid 3NT, invite with 4NT, just blast 6NT, maybe bid Gerber, some other slam investigation tool?
IMO Slam investigation tool = 10, 3N = 9, 4N = 8, 4♣(Gerber) = 4. Good intermediates so slam may be reasonable if partner has a maximum or a near-maximum with a 5-card suit or 44 including ♦. Sheep naturally go with the field :)
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#8 User is offline   phil_20686 

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Posted 2010-November-02, 05:25

I subtract 1 HCP for being 4333 but aces are good and the intermeateates are good so i have an average 16 I guess. That probably means 4N for me.
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#9 User is offline   mcphee 

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Posted 2010-November-02, 05:36

I see no reason not to invite, and although 12 tricks may be the outcome insisting on slam at pairs in close cases scores poorly.
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#10 User is offline   Coelacanth 

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Posted 2010-November-02, 07:41

So here's the rest of the story...

(thanks for the responses btw)

On the previous board my LHO had made an unfortunate opening lead which gave me an extra overtrick for a top board.

On this hand, I bid 4NT invitational, partner gave it some consideration and then passed.

Thinking that we had missed a slam, as I put down the dummy I remarked that I may have just given them a top right back.

Partner held something like




The ♣Q was wrong, so partner took 3 spades and 2 tricks in every other suit for down 1 in 4NT. (The hand can be made, but it requires taking a first round diamond finesse through ♦QJxx on declarer's right. At the table, the defense set up 2 ♥ tricks to go with 1 ♣ and 1 ♦.)

One pair bid the slam, but everyone else stopped in 3NT so I had, indeed, given the opponents a good board.
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#11 User is offline   pooltuna 

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Posted 2010-November-02, 09:46

View PostCoelacanth, on 2010-November-01, 13:00, said:

Matchpoints, you hold



Partner opens 1NT (15-17) in 1st chair.

Do you bid 3NT, invite with 4NT, just blast 6NT, maybe bid Gerber, some other slam investigation tool?

I'll post the actual result a bit later..


IMO the technically correct call is 4NT
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#12 User is offline   mtvesuvius 

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Posted 2010-November-02, 16:08

4N for me as well. Sometimes things don't work out, if we made everything we bid, bridge wouldn't be fun :)
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#13 User is offline   Zelandakh 

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Posted 2010-November-02, 23:05

Ideally you have 2S available as a range ask allowing the auction to go 1NT - 2S - 2NT - 3NT.
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#14 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2010-November-03, 06:28

2♠ min/max ask for me, stay low! Otherwise I think 4NT is just fine.
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