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Long diamonds

#1 User is offline   shyams 

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Posted 2010-August-12, 06:59

Scoring: MP
Partner deals and opens 1NT (15-17). Next seat (your RHO) bids 3♣ natural. They play some defense to 1NT so 2♣ is not natural. The 3♣ bid does not show a weak hand.

What now?

As an aside, what is the standard agreement if you bid -- forcing, inv or NF on North?
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#2 User is offline   TylerE 

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Posted 2010-August-12, 07:00

Bids would be forcing. If p has AK of ♦ too bad.
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#3 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2010-August-12, 07:24

1NT-(3♣)-?

x=takeout, you can pass it
3♦=♥, could be weak (but you can bid 4♥)
3♥=♠, could be weak (but you can bid 4♠)
3♠=♦, can't be weak, but 4♦ is non-forcing
3NT=normal
4♣=55 in majors
4red=texas
... and I can prove it with my usual, flawless logic.
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#4 User is offline   rogerclee 

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Posted 2010-August-12, 08:20

gwnn, on Aug 12 2010, 06:24 AM, said:

1NT-(3♣)-?

x=takeout, you can pass it
3♦=♥, could be weak (but you can bid 4♥)
3♥=♠, could be weak (but you can bid 4♠)
3♠=♦, can't be weak, but 4♦ is non-forcing
3NT=normal
4♣=55 in majors
4red=texas

Yeah this is a really good scheme IMO. Not standard by any stretch though; that would be x = takeout, 3D/3H/3S natural and forcing.
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#5 User is offline   shyams 

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Posted 2010-August-13, 05:06

gwnn, on Aug 12 2010, 02:24 PM, said:

1NT-(3♣)-?

x=takeout, you can pass it
3♦=♥, could be weak (but you can bid 4♥)
3♥=♠, could be weak (but you can bid 4♠)
3♠=♦, can't be weak, but 4♦ is non-forcing
3NT=normal
4♣=55 in majors
4red=texas

So, with the hand given above, would you bid 3♠ and pass partner's 4♦? Or would you pass 3♣ because there is no convenient way to show a weak long diamond suit.
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