jdonn, on Jul 17 2010, 08:36 PM, said:
Not any money, probably just an alert that 3♣ is really invitational since partner will bid 3NT if he can see 7 or more tricks and has at least one outside suit stopped. But duly fainted.
So how would you rule here if the player bid 4♦ and later claimed he has never even considered nor heard of the possibility of someone bidding 3NT over a minor suit sign off?
3
♣ is not "really invitational". I assure you that anyone at TGRs would bid the same way with
♠xx
♥xx
♦xxx
♣xxxxxx (just as I am sure you would playing for money or even for matchpoints facing a weak no trump - important to start bidding before the opponents do, and lucky to have this sequence available because it is the most likely to stop LHO bidding for one round at least).
As to how I would rule in the actual case, I don't know, because I don't know what happened in the actual case. Whatever the actual North-South agreements, South on not hearing his partner's non-alert of 2NT is supposed to bid as though the auction had proceeded 1NT-2NT (may be very weak with diamonds) - 3NT (from a North who knows that South may be very weak with diamonds). Whether South did or did not so proceed, or how South should or should not have proceeded, is unclear.
As I said, I'd have passed, but on reflection maybe I should bid five diamonds. What I cannot do (and what I would stake my life that the actual South did) is bid four diamonds and fold up my cards. After all, systemically 2NT could also be
strong with diamonds, so 4
♦ might be a slam try without a club control, might it not?
It is a capital mistake to theorize without data, and until the OP gives us some more data I will not theorize further. But I bet that after all was said and done, North had some UI also.