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what now?

#1 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2010-July-05, 16:35

Patton (IMPs+BAM)

♠4
♥A7542
♦KQJ753
♣7


1NT-2♦
2♥-3♦
3NT-4♦
4♥-??
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#2 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2010-July-05, 16:42

I'd prefer to have shown diamonds and hearts rather than hearts and diamonds, but I realise that your methods may not allow this.

I think 4♥ is a signoff. If so, we're not in a great position. 4♥ opposite Hx isn't going to be good, but 5♦ and 4NT might also be in difficulties. Can I go back to 3NT?
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#3 User is offline   Cascade 

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Posted 2010-July-05, 16:53

What is the NT range?
Wayne Burrows

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#4 User is offline   pooltuna 

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Posted 2010-July-05, 17:21

Fluffy, on Jul 5 2010, 05:35 PM, said:

Patton (IMPs+BAM)

♠4
♥A7542
♦KQJ753
♣7


1NT-2♦
2♥-3♦
3NT-4♦
4♥-??

don't stop now bid ♦s yet again :)
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#5 User is offline   mrdct 

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Posted 2010-July-05, 20:55

Were any of these bids artificial?

What is the NT range?

Is the NT opener allowed to be a 4225 or a 5224?

If 2♦ is a transfer to ♥, opener has denied 3♥ so if he's not allowed to have the 5422 shapes, he must have at least 3♦ so 6♦ doesn't need very much to be cold if the NT opener has sharp cards.

Accordingly, if 1NT is 15-17 and we aren't allowed to open 1NT with two doubletons, I'm going to try a 4♠ cue and if partner bid 5♣ I'll have a punt a 6♦. It would've been nice to have a universal agreement that 4m is RKCB in that minor.

Also, I strongly agree with gnasher that this hand should've shown ♦ first. Given the quality of the red suits, there could even be merit in ignoring the ♥ suit and treating it as a single-suited slam try with ♦.
Disclaimer: The above post may be a half-baked sarcastic rant intended to stimulate discussion and it does not necessarily coincide with my own views on this topic.
I ♦ bidding the suit below the suit I'm actually showing not to be described as a "transfer" for the benefit of people unfamiliar with the concept of a transfer
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#6 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2010-July-06, 02:28

5 losers opposite 4 cover cards expectancy = 12 tricks. Just bid 6♦ now.
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#7 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2010-July-06, 03:44

Partner probably has ♥Hx. Now I'd just bid 6♦.
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#8 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2010-July-06, 03:58

partner has 15-17 NT

partner cannnot have 5 spades, partner will often open 1♣ with 4225 but not always.


going back to 3NT if you wanna really pass is another option Andy, in fact I almost passed there.
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#9 User is offline   hanp 

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Posted 2010-July-06, 04:02

5D.
and the result can be plotted on a graph.
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#10 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2010-July-06, 04:30

Fluffy, on Jul 6 2010, 10:58 AM, said:

going back to 3NT if you wanna really pass is another option Andy, in fact I almost passed there.

It was a serious suggestion. 3NT shouldn't just deny three hearts, it should also show black-suit cards. 5♦ could easily have three top losers.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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