According to the explanations given, opposite 1m opener, GIB will bypass a 4-card major to reply 2NT with 11-12HCP and also to reply 3NT with 13-15HCP. Is that accurate?
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2 or 3NT response to 1m
#2
Posted 2010-June-26, 18:19
I don't think I've seen it do this.
Even though GIB bids up the line rather than Walsh style, opener may bypass a 4-card major to rebid 1NT or 2NT.
Even though GIB bids up the line rather than Walsh style, opener may bypass a 4-card major to rebid 1NT or 2NT.
#3
Posted 2010-June-26, 20:44
In this hand: http://tinyurl.com/27ramkk , NorthGIB's 2NT is explained as:
Balanced invite -- 2-5C; 2-5D; 2-4H; 2-4S; 11-12HCP; partial stop in C/H/S.
Clearly, the NorthGIB doesn't actually have a 4-card major, and I agree that I haven't seen him bid 2NT with one, so I was just confirming the (in)accuracy of the script. Thanks.
Balanced invite -- 2-5C; 2-5D; 2-4H; 2-4S; 11-12HCP; partial stop in C/H/S.
Clearly, the NorthGIB doesn't actually have a 4-card major, and I agree that I haven't seen him bid 2NT with one, so I was just confirming the (in)accuracy of the script. Thanks.
#4
Posted 2010-June-29, 21:22
Thanks for this report. The definition is indeed inaccurate. NT responses to 1 of a suit deny holding a 4-card major. This will be fixed in the next version.
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