P-1♦
2♠-?
2♠ is explained as Support jump shift by passed hand; 4+D; twice rebiddable S; 11-12 total points.
Potential rebids include:
2N: invitational to 3NT; 3+D; 15-17 HCP
3N: 3+D; 5-H, 5-S, 16-21 HCP; 22- total points
(1) Shouldn't the HCP ranges of these bids be mutually exclusive?
(2) Wouldn't South raise S with 4+ instead of bidding NT?
(3) Isn't South limited to 4-H for a NT rebid?
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After fit-showing jumps
#2
Posted 2010-June-29, 22:13
Yes, these definitions are all wrong. IMO, it would be better to play something like:
2N = 11-13 HCP, 4D, <3S, stoppers in H+C
3D = <15 total points, 4+D, <3S
3C/3H = natural, 14+ total points
3S = 3-4S, <14 total points
3N = 14+ HCP, <3S, stoppers in H+C
4S = 3+ S, 14+ total points
2N = 11-13 HCP, 4D, <3S, stoppers in H+C
3D = <15 total points, 4+D, <3S
3C/3H = natural, 14+ total points
3S = 3-4S, <14 total points
3N = 14+ HCP, <3S, stoppers in H+C
4S = 3+ S, 14+ total points
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