Leading question
#1
Posted 2010-June-15, 12:46
After West leads ♣7 again, can declarer compel East to play his highest (or his lowest) club to the trick?
And sealed the Law by vote,
It little matters what they thought -
We hang for what they wrote.
#2
Posted 2010-June-15, 13:01
"Robin Barker is a mathematician. ... All highly skilled in their respective fields and clearly accomplished bridge players."
#3
Posted 2010-June-15, 13:21
RMB1, on Jun 15 2010, 02:01 PM, said:
Either or both.
And sealed the Law by vote,
It little matters what they thought -
We hang for what they wrote.
#4
Posted 2010-June-15, 14:22
As for tv, screw it. You aren't missing anything. -- Ken Berg
Our ultimate goal on defense is to know by trick two or three everyone's hand at the table. -- Mike777
I have come to realise it is futile to expect or hope a regular club game will be run in accordance with the laws. -- Jillybean
#5
Posted 2010-June-15, 14:30
I'll stick to duplicate bridge because I do not have the rubber laws to hand.
Such a restriction on East only appears possible from Law 57A.
Quote
1. require offender’s partner to play the highest card he holds of the suit led, or
2. require offender’s partner to play the lowest card he holds of the suit led, or
3. forbid offender’s partner to play a card of another suit specified by declarer.
Has West "lead[] to the next trick before his partner has played to the current trick"? No, there was no current trick for East to play to.
Has West "play[ed] out of turn before his partner has played"? It could be argued; but I would say No, there was no one's turn to play when West played (lead), so it was not out of turn.
I do not think Law 57 applies, so my answer is No.
No doubt someone has some good reason to think otherwise.
"Robin Barker is a mathematician. ... All highly skilled in their respective fields and clearly accomplished bridge players."
#6
Posted 2010-June-15, 14:57
However, it seems that a natural interpretation is that any 'penalty' is paid when the hand is passed out.
There remains UI from the lead, ignorant of the the double. So if declarer felt damaged by that, there are remedies for damage not covered adequately by other Laws.
#7
Posted 2010-June-15, 15:04
RMB1, on Jun 15 2010, 03:30 PM, said:
No doubt someone has some good reason to think otherwise.
Oh, no particularly "good" reason. But...
"Law 24" said:
If the offender becomes a defender every such card becomes a penalty card (see Law 50), then:
"Law 50" said:
So, West has to lead ♣7 and the Director has to turn to Law 57, where he finds that:
"Law 57" said:
1. require offender’s partner to play the highest card he holds of the suit led, or
2. require offender’s partner to play the lowest card he holds of the suit led, or
3. forbid offender’s partner to play a card of another suit specified by declarer.
Now, Robin argues that since it was no one's turn to play a card during the auction, West's lead of ♣7 was not out of turn. But if you do anything when it is not your turn, you ipso facto do it out of turn (the Definitions say only that "turn" is "the correct time at which a player is due to call or play").
This position actually arose a few hours ago. Probably the Lawmakers did not intend that the draconian provisions of Law 57 should apply, but if they didn't, they have in my view done a rather poor job of saying so.
I suppose it might be argued that Law 57 doesn't apply because at the time West led out of turn, he was not a defender (the auction had not finished). But the Definitions say only that a "defender" is "an opponent of (presumed) declarer"; at the point at which West led, he (and everybody else) presumed that South was the declarer, so this argument is... well, tenuous at best and untenable at worst.
And sealed the Law by vote,
It little matters what they thought -
We hang for what they wrote.
#8
Posted 2010-June-15, 16:07
Even if we didn't have separate laws to handle cards exposed during the auction, L57 would not apply here, because the person with the exposed c7 is going to play first.
WTP? (I'm sure dburn has something sneaky up his sleeve, but I sure don't see it.)
As a side note, I can't remember ever applying L57 at the table, in 15 years of directing one or two games a week.
#9
Posted 2010-June-15, 17:47
dburn, on Jun 15 2010, 01:46 PM, said:
After West leads ♣7 again, can declarer compel East to play his highest (or his lowest) club to the trick?
Is it safe to assert that during the auction there is no trick? I thought that the point of the query was to draw attention to the dribble contained in L24B since by definition a card exposed during the auction is not a played card let alone a lead. For instance, this has the effect that a card intentionally exposed below an honor does not impose an enforced pass upon partner.
Now, while L50 points to L57, because the PC was not a played card the issue is mute concerning a play penalty upon partner- even though it feels like it was a lead.
Personally I have great sympathy for treating the exposure of a card during the waning moments of the auction [where all subsequent calls are pass] as a play of a card to a trick rather than merely a PC. Where any play penalty upon partner is first predicated upon the putative partner’s turn being skipped [which in burn’s case it wasn’t].
#10
Posted 2010-June-15, 18:27
If South had not yet passed, then West's action was out of turn. Does it constitute "play", though? The definition of that in the front of the book is a bit unclear -- what "first card"? The "first card" to what?
#11
Posted 2010-June-15, 19:08
Merseyside England UK
EBL TD
Currently at home
Visiting IBLF from time to time
<webjak666@gmail.com>
#12
Posted 2010-June-16, 01:11
campboy, on Jun 15 2010, 07:27 PM, said:
If South had not yet passed, then West's action was out of turn. Does it constitute "play", though? The definition of that in the front of the book is a bit unclear -- what "first card"? The "first card" to what?
South bid 3NT, West passed, North passed, East doubled, West led.
Thus West attempted to lead at South's turn to call - he thought East has passed, not doubled, so that the auction was over.
"Law 24" said:
...then it is a lead, which is per the Definitions "the first card played to a trick". The fact that no one else is going to play to this trick yet is neither here nor there - West has led a card when it was not his turn to do so, and therefore...
bluejak said:
"Law 57" said:
...West has certainly played out of turn before his partner has played, since per the Definitions a "play" is (inter alia) "the contribution of a card from one’s hand to a trick, including the first card, which is the lead."
And sealed the Law by vote,
It little matters what they thought -
We hang for what they wrote.
#13
Posted 2010-June-16, 01:27
bluejak, on Jun 16 2010, 02:08 AM, said:
True,
But everything is possible when the Devil reads the Holy Bible.
#14
Posted 2010-June-16, 02:00
"Law 57" said:
It seems clear to me that this should be interpreted as saying "When a defender leads to the next trick before his partner has played to the current trick, or plays out of turn before his partner has played to the current trick,"
In fact, I think this is so clear, that some of those commentating have just assumed this - hence the query about why Law 57 is relevant at all.
dburn, on the other hand, is suggesting the two conditions could be entirely separate. I agree the grammer allows this interpretation. But I don't think it makes sense in terms of the penalty (rectification?) prescribed, which should also be interpreted as applying to the current trick.
So why not just interpret the law as it is intended, and forget about trying to impose inappropriate penalties in unrelated circumstances?
#15
Posted 2010-June-16, 03:48
WellSpyder, on Jun 16 2010, 09:00 AM, said:
"Law 57" said:
It seems clear to me that this should be interpreted as saying "When a defender leads to the next trick before his partner has played to the current trick, or plays out of turn before his partner has played to the current trick,"
In fact, I think this is so clear, that some of those commentating have just assumed this - hence the query about why Law 57 is relevant at all.
Heh, that interpretation didn't even occur to me. Now that you suggest it, it seems quite likely that that is what they meant, but what they wrote is not even ambiguous.
Quote
While it is obvious what the intended ruling is here, I do find it helpful to be challenged about what I am assuming when reading the laws, and what is actually said -- I certainly would never have noticed this without David pointing it out, and it took me an embarrassingly long time to get it even once he had. And it is certainly worth discussing how the wording could be improved in future editions, such as by adding the phrase you have in italics.
#16
Posted 2010-June-16, 06:03
Merseyside England UK
EBL TD
Currently at home
Visiting IBLF from time to time
<webjak666@gmail.com>
#17
Posted 2010-June-16, 06:21
bluejak, on Jun 16 2010, 07:03 AM, said:
This wasn't a "clever" reading of the Law. This was a reading of the Law that involved considering at each stage what the words of the Law meant.
Is it "the practice of the matter" for Directors to ignore what the Law says? If so, where is this "practice" documented?
And sealed the Law by vote,
It little matters what they thought -
We hang for what they wrote.
#18
Posted 2010-June-16, 07:01
bluejak, on Jun 16 2010, 01:03 PM, said:
Well, Law 57 does indeed apply when a defender leads to the next trick before his partner has played a card to the current trick.
Law 57 also applies when a defender plays a card to the current trick before his partner when his partner was in turn to play first of the two to the trick.
(e.g. North leads to a trick. Before East plays West plays a card to the trick. Law 57 applies on what card East can be requested to play or forbidden from playing to the trick)
#19
Posted 2010-June-16, 07:10
dburn, on Jun 16 2010, 01:21 PM, said:
bluejak, on Jun 16 2010, 07:03 AM, said:
This wasn't a "clever" reading of the Law. This was a reading of the Law that involved considering at each stage what the words of the Law meant.
Is it "the practice of the matter" for Directors to ignore what the Law says? If so, where is this "practice" documented?
Normal practice for Directors is to having been trained in the laws, understand the laws and use the laws.
I took me quite an effort to understand the alleged problem with Law 57. Maybe because I have used this law without any problem since 1980 (and even before that).
#20
Posted 2010-June-16, 08:26
bluejak, on Jun 16 2010, 07:03 AM, said:
Supposedly the point L57 is that great harm can arise from a POOT that gives pard information prematurely and thus a remedy should be supplied. I mention supposedly because the law does little to [a] describe the problem and [b] does little to remedy it.
For instance ‘When a defender leads to the next trick before his partner has played to the current trick’ seems to say that if defender has played to the ‘current trick’ and then leads to the next trick prior to pard playing to the current trick the condition for penalty is satisfied.
But, what about when it is an <opponent> that leads to the next trick and then the defender plays to ‘the’ next trick prior to pard playing to the current trick- as distinct from leading to the next trick.
For another instance: ‘ When a defender …. plays out of turn before his partner has played,’ notably, this condition occurs only some time during the first trick as distinct from T2 thru T13.
For another instance: and what about dropped cards? Don’t they acheive the same damage as plays- yet the law57 misses them completely.
And if justice is to be the objective, shouldn’t [at the least] the retracted card become a PC after the opponent chooses his penalty- rather than prior?

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