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Is this a 2 Clubs FG opening? What's your take?

#1 User is offline   Hanoi5 

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Posted 2010-June-02, 17:02

All white, dealer passes and you hold?

AQJxxx
A9x
KQ
KQ

Do you?

 wyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:

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#2 User is offline   Jlall 

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Posted 2010-June-02, 17:03

I would open 2C, it's a little light but you have no rebids if you open 1S so I think it's practical.
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#3 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2010-June-02, 17:12

I am happy nowadays to open these weakish 1 suiters 2 (just like I am happy to open some 14-15 counts with 1 good suit with a strong )
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#4 User is offline   pooltuna 

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Posted 2010-June-02, 17:13

Hanoi5, on Jun 2 2010, 06:02 PM, said:

All white, dealer passes and you hold?

AQJxxx
A9x
KQ
KQ

Do you?

a shade too light for me so I would call 1 and worry about any rebids later
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#5 User is offline   gordontd 

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Posted 2010-June-02, 17:21

Five losers & 4.5 quick tricks. Seems a bit light to me. I'll start with 1 and force to game if partner responds. If not, we may well not be making game.
Gordon Rainsford
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#6 User is offline   mikeh 

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Posted 2010-June-02, 17:37

Your question contains a hidden subtext: is 2 FG?

Your question assumes that it is, but my understanding, which is not as current as I'd like it to be, is that common usage allows the auction to die short of game.

Certainly, I think everybody with whose methods I am familar, plays that a rebid of 2N may be passed, and I think it fairly common to play that 2 is forcing to 2N, 3M or 4m...if, like me, you play 2 immediate negative, then you probably play, like me, that it is forcing to 2N, 3S, or 4other suit.

This may not matter, but if you do indeed play 2 as FG, that may make you decide that this hand may be worth a not-quite FG bid, but not a true FG bid.

As for me: if you'd asked me two years ago, I'd have very firmly said this is too weak for 2.

One of the results of my reading posts here, and of reading Bridge Worlds, and of playing with a new partner is that all three sources suggest that my approach may be too restrictive.

So, I have decided that from now on I open this hand 2. Of course, I will probably never hold this hand, so this promise costs me little.

Edit: this hand is an absolute minimum even for the new, bolder, looser me...and I choose it primarily because I don't know what to bid after 1
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#7 User is offline   blackshoe 

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Posted 2010-June-02, 17:49

I agree with Gordon. This is not a game forcing hand on its own merits.

When I hold hands like this, I wish I was playing Precision. Or Romex.
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#8 User is offline   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2010-June-02, 17:54

blackshoe, on Jun 2 2010, 06:49 PM, said:

I agree with Gordon. This is not a game forcing hand on its own merits.

When I hold hands like this, I wish I was playing Precision. Or Romex.

Old fashioned acol strong 2S also works.

The question is, "what are you going to do when partner responds 1N to 1S".
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#9 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2010-June-02, 18:03

If I have a way to show a GF single suiter if pard responds 1N I will open 1S. Otherwise 2C.
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#10 User is offline   mikeh 

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Posted 2010-June-02, 19:17

Phil, on Jun 2 2010, 07:03 PM, said:

If I have a way to show a GF single suiter if pard responds 1N I will open 1S. Otherwise 2C.

I have that method (a js to 3, multi=purpose, partner bids 3 relay if interested) but I wouldn't use it here...this hand, with 14 hcp outside of spades, weakish spades (in context) and stopper everywhere, doesn't look like a pure one-suiter...I'd rather bid 3N over 1N, if I opened 1
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#11 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2010-June-02, 19:40

Crackberry double post.
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#12 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2010-June-03, 00:20

1S for me. I agree that it is a tad too weak for 2C.
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#13 User is offline   nigel_k 

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Posted 2010-June-03, 01:28

I would open 1 and prefer to play 2 forcing to game after a suit rebid. Usually responder doesn't have a complete yarborough and doesn't know if his few cards are the right ones. Even if I could stop in 3 after a 2 opening I would probably still open 1 though it is closer.

You could also play that 1-1NT-3NT shows this hand type (6322 or maybe also 6331) since 5332 shapes are already limited to a 2 point range and can just rebid 2NT.
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#14 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2010-June-03, 02:09

I have no problem with a 3NT rebid after a 1NT response. Does that systematically show something different?
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#15 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2010-June-03, 02:25

1, I don't have problems with showing a strong hand later.
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#16 User is offline   Little Kid 

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Posted 2010-June-03, 04:06

1 and 3NT for me too, which shows a semi-balanced hand with 6 very good s.
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#17 User is offline   gordontd 

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Posted 2010-June-03, 07:34

Cyberyeti, on Jun 3 2010, 12:54 AM, said:

The question is, "what are you going to do when partner responds 1N to 1S".

With one of my partners I'd rebid 2, which is a transfer, and then bid 3NT which shows this hand.

Otherwise I'd rebid 3. Rebidding 3NT is not terrible, but it does make it harder to find 4 or 4 when they are better contracts.
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#18 User is offline   gordontd 

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Posted 2010-June-03, 07:39

mikeh, on Jun 3 2010, 12:37 AM, said:

I think it fairly common to play that 2 is forcing to 2N, 3M or 4m...if, like me, you play 2 immediate negative, then you probably play, like me, that it is forcing to 2N, 3S, or 4other suit.

I don't know that it's common, though I know some play it this way. The trouble with this hand is that if your partner responds 2, forcing to game, you won't have any certainty of making game even if your partner has trump support and the king of trumps or an ace. That being the case, I think 2 is simply an overbid.

The broader problem with your method is that it's unclear in which circumstances you can stop short of game, and what you need to do to avoid being passed out in a part-score when you want to investigate further for slam.
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#19 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2010-June-03, 07:42

mikeh, on Jun 2 2010, 07:17 PM, said:

Phil, on Jun 2 2010, 07:03 PM, said:

If I have a way to show a GF single suiter if pard responds 1N I will open 1S.

......doesn't look like a pure one-suiter...I'd rather bid 3N over 1N, if I opened 1

By definition, 1S-1N;3N* shows six spades in ours, so this becomes a non-problem.
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#20 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2010-June-03, 09:21

Seems like an easy hand to bid:

2 2
2 any
3NT

If you open 1, you risk to hear the dreaded

1 1NT

after which you'll be pretty much stuck for a bid:

- 3 is an underbid
- 3m or 3 = lol (in my opinion)
- 2NT is a misdescription and underbid (though probably the best bid here)
- 4 is a flyer
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