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2♣ is explained as 5+♣ and 11+ total points.
2♠ is explained as "cue bid -- 3+D; 21-HCP; 14-22 total points; forcing to 3NT"
2NT is explained as "5+♣; 5-♥; 5-♠; 11+ total points; likely stop in ♠; forcing to 3NT". With a minimum for his 2♣ bid and ♠ well-stopped, why doesn't GIB bid 3NT here?
3NT is explained as "3+♦; 5-♥; 5-♠; 16-21HCP; 22- total points". South shouldn't make this call with 14-15 HCP? And is it really still possible that NS has a 5-5♥ fit?
4NT is explained as "Quantitative invite to 6NT -- 5+♣; 5-♥; 5-♠; 14-15HCP; likely stop in ♠". NorthGIB does not have 14-15HCP.
5♦ is explained as "5-♥; 5-♠; 16+HCP; strong rebiddable ♦; 16- total points". Interesting relationship between HCP and total points. Isn't it common to answer aces "along the way" when accepting partner's quantitative invite? Haven't we already agreed on NT?
At another table, the auction went:
1♦-(1♠)-2♣-(P)
2♦-(P)-2♠
The explanation of 2♠ is "5+♣; 3+♦; 13+ total points; forcing to 3NT". Clearly, NorthGIB doesn't have 3+♦. And if he's gonna force to 3NT, why doesn't he just bid 3NT given his ♠ holding?
This is NorthGIB, with South dealer:
1♦-(1♠)-2♣-(P)
2♠-(P)-2NT-(P)
3NT-(P)-4NT-(P)
5♦-all pass