Scoring: MP
West discards a spade(!) and declarer then (more or less in the same breath) calls for the king from dummy, shows his hand, and claims saying he is "conceding two heart tricks". The defence agree and the board is scored on that basis.
So, questions....
At least one of East/West must surely (?) have realised what happened when they saw declarer's hand (?). According to Law 9A4 they are not obliged to draw attention to it, so (all other things being equal) that would be the end of it and they have done nothing wrong. Is this really right?
[hypothetical question]If West had said "oh I have revoked" before the claim, declarer would have made another trick (via the operation of 62C2). But what happens if West says it after the claim is made but before it is accepted? The revoke isn't established, but a claim has been made so play must cease. Do we still replay the last trick anyway as in any other non-established revoke, or have EW got away with no penalty for revoking just because declarer claimed?
As the claim was accepted and the next board played we get into Law 64C territory. North/South realise what happened when they look through the hand records once play is over, but within the correction period.
Suppose, as the TD, you find the other pair and they agree with what has happened. You are aware that the percentage line in the suit (with no revoke) would have been to play the king anyway, picking up singleton queen offside. How would you rule in order to restore equity?
In real life, N/S were actually a few miles away having started to drive home when they realised what had happened. What do you do, as TD, if they call your mobile phone and ask for a ruling? What if the other pair are still at the venue? What if they have left but you have their contact details?
[Bear in mind that there are only three ways this revoke could have come to light: EW admitting to it at the time, South not claiming in any position where he can still lose a trick, or when they look through the hand records... so any request for a ruling that is technically in time should never be considered 'too late']

Help
