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control / to play? why?

#1 User is offline   kgr 

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Posted 2010-April-03, 03:47

Both are MP's (it could matter because pay better, but it shouldn't change the meaning of the bid).

1-1NT
2-3NT
4-4
 
3NT: to play, 2NT would have been Lebensohl, 3x forcing
4: forcing
4: control for or preference for (eg 3c)? (4NT iso 4 would have been to play)
....why?

1-1
2-2
2NT-3
3NT-4
4
 
2: real but forcing
2: 4th suit GF
2NT: -stop, no 3c, better then 3NT
3NT: prefer 3NT over 4 opposite a 6c
4: natural and slam interest (6+, 3+)
4: control for or preference for (eg small doubleton; or honour singleton)?
....why?
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#2 User is offline   dake50 

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Posted 2010-April-03, 06:22

1st: would expect 4NT as H-Q in this auction if D-slammy.

2nd: sounds like responder has hefty 4531/4630, so again 4NT as H-Q.

Of course pick-ups have 4NT always conventional. Stuck.
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#3 User is offline   kgr 

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Posted 2010-April-03, 07:04

dake50, on Apr 3 2010, 02:22 PM, said:

4NT as H-Q

what is H-Q?
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#4 User is offline   MFA 

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Posted 2010-April-03, 07:07

These things are often nightmarish for new partnerships.

1) 4 is a cuebid. I don't think 'sudden desperate' preferences into a 4-3 fit on the four level exist when partner is slamgoing. I would interpret 4, 4 and 5 as cuebids and 4NT as natural. I would be happy to cuebid the Q here if my hand is suitable for a diamond slam.

2) Natural. I don't like being excluded from suggesting 4M when one of us has shown a long suit there. To make qualified decisions about playing 5-2s, 6-1s or even 5-1s we need these kind of delayed support bids to show some fit. Or responder would be left to gamble on his own on 4M too often with an inadequate suit.

For 4 to be a cuebid, when 4M is still feasible because one of us has 5+, a rule of thumb could be that the minor should already have been agreed with a previous cuebid.
The opening hand should bid as described with a stiff H in hearts, minimum and a mediocre diamond suit. For instance.
Michael Askgaard
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#5 User is offline   Little Kid 

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Posted 2010-April-03, 15:10

1) 1NT and 3NT both suggest a pretty balanced shape and desire to play in NT, probably 3=3=3=4 (or possibly 3=3=2=5 with a bad club suit?). That doesn't looks like an ideal shape to be playing in a 4-3 fit with, especially if you wrong-side the the contract for black suit stoppers and they could end up forcing declarer. Unless you have extra shape in s or serious slam interests it might be better to pass 3NT at MPs than head for a dubious 4 contract or inferior 5? 1NT and 3NT seems to imply tolerance if not fit, so I would take 4 over 4 as a cuebid here and not a suggestion to play. Partner could possibly have 1 or 2 extra s and be REALLY interested if you have anything to help in s in order to play slam.


2) Would take this one as "To Play". By going via 2N you mention you show a slightly better hand than direct 3N? 4 could be like a mild slam try to see if you're at the top of your range. In that case 4 could very well be a nice place to stop if you don't have too much extra. Responder has shown 6+s and you have bid NT, so 4 definitely still looks like a plausable contract to play in (rather than the 4-3 fit).
Veni, vidi, proficisci
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#6 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2010-April-03, 15:15

Natural in both cases. Game bidding comes first so you can't cuebid something that might be a playable game if you haven't yet agreed a suit.
Please let me know about any questions or interest or bug reports about GIB.
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#7 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2010-April-03, 15:46

On the 1st, game before slam, however in a lot of cases why not bid 2N with Hxx of hearts to allow Opener to pattern out?

No opinion about the 2nd - either seem possible to me.
Hi y'all!

Winner - BBO Challenge bracket #6 - February, 2017.
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#8 User is offline   MarkDean 

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Posted 2010-April-03, 15:56

I think the second one is clearly to play. On the first one, I think it is a cue (even Qx allowed): if responder had a hand that might play well in a 43 fit, I do not think he should have jumped to 3NT last round.
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#9 User is offline   karlson 

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Posted 2010-April-03, 16:14

I think both are cues, I would not bid 3n with 3 decent hearts on the first one or two decent hearts on the second one, and I think the 4d bidder should have real diamonds both times.
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#10 User is offline   karlson 

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Posted 2010-April-03, 16:22

It's been pointed out that most of the hands i imagine opener having on the second one don't actually have a heart cue, so I guess then I'm convinced by natural but this auction almost doesn't exist.
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#11 User is offline   Jlall 

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Posted 2010-April-03, 17:03

Bidding 4H on stiff H seems normal in the 2nd auction. 3H then 4D suggests hearts that are quite good, otherwise responder would usually just bid 3D over 2N.
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#12 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2010-April-03, 17:05

First one is an obvious cuebid for me, moysan is never proposed as a fit when you have 4NT to slow down.


Second one sounds like natural, I have my doubts given that you think 4 guarantees 3s, but if it sounds natural it must be natural, and anyway, what kind of control can you have if you failed to raise before?
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#13 User is offline   kgr 

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Posted 2010-April-04, 03:55

Thanks all for the answers leading to the conclusion for me:
1st: you don't play in a 4/3 when slam interest. So that is control
2nd: (less clear); xx or H; proposal to play.
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#14 User is offline   kgr 

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Posted 2010-April-04, 04:00


scoring mix of IMP's and MP's.
1-1NT (West can bid 3 6-card invite, 2 would have been GF)
2-3NT (West maybe better bids 3, but preferred 3NT with misfit)
4-4 (West tried to play in ?? but East took this as a cue)
6-All Pass
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#15 User is offline   kgr 

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Posted 2010-April-04, 04:09


1-2 (2=one suited major, weak or closed major)
2-3 (3=closed major with max 1 honor at the side=>not correct system bid and impossible for West because he has K)
3NT-4
4-6
All Pass (Maybe West should trust East and bid 6??)
 
This should have gone?:
1-1
2-2 (2 forcing, 2 4th suit GF)
2NT- 3 (2NT extras)
3NT-4
....How to continue to 7??
4-4
5-5
7
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#16 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2010-April-04, 04:21

kgr, on Apr 4 2010, 10:00 AM, said:


scoring mix of IMP's and MP's.
1-1NT (West can bid 3 6-card invite, 2 would have been GF)
2-3NT (West maybe better bids 3, but preferred 3NT with misfit)
4-4 (West tried to play in ?? but East took this as a cue)
6-All Pass

Diamonds are too weak to reopen with 4, 4 is a much better bid
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#17 User is offline   kgr 

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Posted 2010-April-04, 04:23

Fluffy, on Apr 4 2010, 12:21 PM, said:

kgr, on Apr 4 2010, 10:00 AM, said:

Dealer: East
Vul: None
Scoring: Unknown
KQ6
J86
K
J87643
 
AKT4
AT6432
AKT
 

scoring mix of IMP's and MP's.
1-1NT (West can bid 3 6-card invite, 2 would have been GF)
2-3NT (West maybe better bids 3, but preferred 3NT with misfit)
4-4 (West tried to play in ?? but East took this as a cue)
6-All Pass

Diamonds are too weak to reopen with 4, 4 is a much better bid

Is 4 not more a 0454?
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#18 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2010-April-04, 12:48

kgr, on Apr 4 2010, 05:00 AM, said:


scoring mix of IMP's and MP's.
1-1NT (West can bid 3 6-card invite, 2 would have been GF)
2-3NT (West maybe better bids 3, but preferred 3NT with misfit)
4-4 (West tried to play in ?? but East took this as a cue)
6-All Pass

3NT is a terrible bid, as it would usually be on this auction. What misfit, they had a 9 card fit but west just didn't bother to find out.
Please let me know about any questions or interest or bug reports about GIB.
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