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Shall I take you out... of 3NT?

#1 User is offline   Hanoi5 

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Posted 2012-March-23, 07:41

♠Qxx
♥KQJxx
♦KQxxx
♣---

1♥-2♦
3♦-3NT
???

MP's, both red. SAYC.

View Postwyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:

Also, he rates to not have a heart void when he leads the ♥3.


View Postrbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:

Besides playing for fun, most people also like to play bridge to win


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#2 User is offline   ahydra 

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Posted 2012-March-23, 08:01

At MPs I'm tempted not to. Teams I probably would try 4D just in case partner has a hand like KJx Ax Axxxx Jxx, in the worst case we can play 5D.

ahydra
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#3 User is offline   ArtK78 

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Posted 2012-March-23, 08:28

I am not concerned about 3NT. I am concerned about 6♦ (or even a grand).

If your only question is whether I would pass 3NT, the answer is no. Never.

I would not be surprised to find out that 6♦ is cold and that 3NT has no play.
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#4 User is offline   HighLow21 

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Posted 2012-March-23, 12:51

18 reasons to take out of 3nt and not one to leave it in. If you think passing 3nt is a potential matchpoint victory, you need your head examined.
There is a big difference between a good decision and a good result. Let's keep our posts about good decisions rather than "gotcha" results!
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#5 User is offline   HighLow21 

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Posted 2012-March-23, 12:53

View Postahydra, on 2012-March-23, 08:01, said:

At MPs I'm tempted not to. Teams I probably would try 4D just in case partner has a hand like KJx Ax Axxxx Jxx, in the worst case we can play 5D.

ahydra

Umm, 6♦?
There is a big difference between a good decision and a good result. Let's keep our posts about good decisions rather than "gotcha" results!
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#6 User is offline   phil_20686 

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Posted 2012-March-23, 13:13

Am literally closer to blasting 6D than passing 3N.

If the question is what is the best way to move past 3N, I dont know. 4D and 4S are good bids imo.

I thint was wrong to bid a NF 3d. I have so much potential here. I would have tried 4c over 2D as a splinter.
The physics is theoretical, but the fun is real. - Sheldon Cooper
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#7 User is offline   Cthulhu D 

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Posted 2012-March-23, 19:03

It seems ill defined what pulling to 4C is here, but the best treatment seems to be it's a splinter if it's a new suit or weak scramble if you're rebidding a suit someone has already bid.
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#8 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2012-March-24, 14:05

View PostCthulhu D, on 2012-March-23, 19:03, said:

It seems ill defined what pulling to 4C is here, but the best treatment seems to be it's a splinter if it's a new suit or weak scramble if you're rebidding a suit someone has already bid.

Neither of those seems very useful to me. If opener had a shortage, he would have splintered on the previous round. With a weak hand and no great fit he would pass 3NT. With a weak hand, a good fit, and a hand that didn't want to play 3NT, he would bid game in the suit.

In the given sequence, I'd play 4♣ as just a cue-bid. If clubs were responder's suit, I'd play is as a slam try, inviting cue-bidding.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#9 User is offline   Vampyr 

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Posted 2012-March-24, 18:55

View Postgnasher, on 2012-March-24, 14:05, said:

In the given sequence, I'd play 4♣ as just a cue-bid. If clubs were responder's suit, I'd play is as a slam try, inviting cue-bidding.


I play pulling to partner's minor as RKCB. On this hand it doesn't work (not that I'm saying I would choose it anyway) as I have a void, but do you think that it is a poor agreement in general?
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#10 User is offline   Yu18772 

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Posted 2012-March-24, 20:31

Yes - 4♦/♣ - depends on partner (hoping him to figure out).
The question why did I bid 3♦ and not splinter?

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#11 User is offline   gordontd 

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Posted 2012-March-25, 02:16

View Postphil_20686, on 2012-March-23, 13:13, said:

I thint was wrong to bid a NF 3d.

Since they are playing SAYC, 3♦ was not NF.
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#12 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2012-March-25, 04:06

View PostVampyr, on 2012-March-24, 18:55, said:

I play pulling to partner's minor as RKCB. On this hand it doesn't work (not that I'm saying I would choose it anyway) as I have a void, but do you think that it is a poor agreement in general?

I always think low-level ace-asking agreements are bad, because a natural meaning is more useful.

In this sequence as opener, a natural 4D bid lets you bid a hand like Ax AQJxx KQxx xx sensibly: you can bid 4D, simultaneously denying a club control and inviting a cue-bid in a major.

If partner bids 4♥ over that, you will know that he has both a club control and ♥K. Now you're well-placed to use Keycard, because you know what you're goung to do opposite any reply.

If, instead, he bids 4♠, you know that we're missing ♥K, so slam will require the right cards from him - eg Kxx xx Axxxx AQx - so you bid 5♦ (or maybe a last-train 5♣) and leave it up to him.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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