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Stiff opposite Stiff Reno - Regional Swiss

#1 User is offline   Echognome 

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Posted 2010-March-15, 12:34

Scoring: IMP

(P) - 1 - (P) - 4;
(P) - ?


4 was a splinter, which is played as limit plus.

Your call?
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#2 User is offline   jjbrr 

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Posted 2010-March-15, 12:35

5
OK
bed
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#3 User is offline   hrothgar 

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Posted 2010-March-15, 12:37

5 cue looks like the best way to avoid a slam off two quick Heart tricks...
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#4 User is offline   rogerclee 

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Posted 2010-March-15, 12:39

4H, keeps us a level lower, and if we bid slam, I want to make it not completely obvious that a heart lead is right.

BTW I play this does not promise a heart control, but even if it did, I would bid 4H anyway.
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#5 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2010-March-15, 12:40

If partner has 4315 the best bid is 4 to avoid the maybe killing lead, but if not playing mind games I guess 5 is the only bid, singing off if partner jsut bids 5 or 5 next. We are off 5 cards, and partner only promised 3.
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#6 User is offline   cherdanno 

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Posted 2010-March-15, 12:51

I would bid 4 and don't really think it's close, so I am surprised about the other replies (but I don't know what a "limit plus"-splinter is).
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#7 User is offline   hanp 

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Posted 2010-March-15, 12:53

No way you would bid 4S.
and the result can be plotted on a graph.
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#8 User is offline   Echognome 

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Posted 2010-March-15, 12:55

We definitely do not play any form of last train. So hidden continuations are:

If you bid 4 -
Spoiler


If you bid 4 -
Spoiler


If you bid 5 -
Spoiler


Back to you.

Edit - I checked with partner on what he would actually bid.
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#9 User is offline   cherdanno 

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Posted 2010-March-15, 13:04

Maybe I don't know what a splinter is in standard. I thought with a typical 5431 shape it shows 10-12 hcp, or bad 13. I can't see how trying for slam can be good opposite that.
"Are you saying that LTC merits a more respectful dismissal?"
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#10 User is offline   hanp 

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Posted 2010-March-15, 13:10

Why would partner bid 4D limit plus, and then go on after 4H on a 9-count?

I don't understand the system at all. How can you play "limit plus" 4D and then not play 4H as last train? There must be some way to say that you have slam interest if partner has extras?

I'd say that last train is good after a normal splinter, but after a wide ranging splinter it seems like an absolute must.

I think that pretty much everybody plays last train here, even if they don't call it last train.
and the result can be plotted on a graph.
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#11 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2010-March-15, 13:10

I will play only 5 on this deal one route or another.


why didn't you like 2 gnome? is 2+4 stronger?
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#12 User is offline   Echognome 

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Posted 2010-March-15, 13:14

hanp, on Mar 15 2010, 11:10 AM, said:

Why would partner bid 4D limit plus, and then go on after 4H on a 9-count?

Because partner would think you hold the K. I'm not saying the agreements are best. Just telling you what they are.

Edit - Checked with partner. See edited continuations.
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#13 User is offline   kenrexford 

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Posted 2010-March-15, 14:03

I really dislike splinters as my first call unless I have fairly strict parameters, because 2/1 sequences solve a lot of problems with these sorts of questions when partner's hand can be better defined.

The general parameters I use would be to have fairly certain "primes" holdings (where cues won't help that much) and fairly evenly split between the remaining side suits. Plus, I'd really like some sort of parameters on cover cards promised.

If one assumes that approach, or something similar, then partner almost is forced by the circumstance of what I am looking at to have Axxx AKx(x)(x) x Kxx(x)(x). (4414, 4315, or 4513) But, with the specific instance of Axxx AKxxx x Kxx, a 2 response is too appealing as an alternative (enabling a cue of the heart Queen).

So, I would end up visualizing either Axxx AKxx x Kxxx or Axxx AKx x Kxxxx for partner's only possible storng-splinter hands.

Opposite the former, I pretty much need a 3-2 club split, or someone looking at the 10 of clubs well-placed, or the club 9 and a stiff honor all well-placed. With the latter, I'm in really good shape.

However, with "limit plus," I need more than the minimum for that hand. "Limit+" is quite a wild range, actually, so I don't know what partner has or what he need for slam acceptance.

I presume that the availability of a 4 call between 4 and a sign-off means that LTTC is available, but I don't know what this asks of partner. If 4 means at a minimum enough to force game, then "limit+" makes no sense. I suppose that means limit in HCP. So, if the LTTC asks for partner to go if he has better than "limit" HCP, I suppose I bid LTTC.

I'm REAL curious whether partner's 4 was "right." Or, "right" by my thinking.

If I were to guess, 4 (if LTTC) seems to make sense.

EDIT -- no last train used.

Well, this is just stupid, then. I abstain, because it seems absurdly idiotic to play Limit+ for splinters and yet no LTTC. You end up at the Binsky level too much, or missing slams too much.
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#14 User is offline   kfay 

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Posted 2010-March-15, 14:24

hanp, on Mar 15 2010, 02:10 PM, said:

I don't understand the system at all. How can you play "limit plus" 4D and then not play 4H as last train?

ch00 ch00 train?

Seems clear to me, Han.
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#15 User is offline   y66 

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Posted 2010-March-15, 16:50

... 5C 5H 5S

Pard will go on with Axxx Axxx x KQxx.
If you lose all hope, you can always find it again -- Richard Ford in The Sportswriter
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#16 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2010-March-16, 02:34

I really have a hard time chosing between 4 and 4. Singleton vs singleton is usually bad news. Ace in partner's singleton isn't that great either. We miss at least 6HCP in , and (if partner is max and no singleton K/Q/J). I'm pretty pessimistic about this hand, so I'd probably just bid 4 without much confidence.
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