is 1 diamond pass 2 clubs a game force bid in 2/1?
first person to answer correctly wins a prize (4 bottles of asti, winner collects prize)
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minor over a minor
#2
Posted 2004-July-18, 19:28
I believe that 1D/2C is not game forcing in 2/1 without partnership agreement because of the lack of a forcing notrump over 1D. Many hands would be unbiddable if 2C were game forcing.
My regular partner and I have had success playing 2C as game forcing. To do this, we have to play 1D-2NT (and 1C-2NT for consistency) as non-forcing, showing 11-12, and more importantly, 1D-3C as invitational, and certainly passable, showing long clubs (6 expected) and the strength for a traditional 2C response. Both these responses deny a four card major. (Yes, Ch., I know I'm stating the obvious again but it might not be obvious to everybody in this forum.)
Without prior agreement, I would treat a 2C response to 1D the same way that you did before you played 2/1.
My regular partner and I have had success playing 2C as game forcing. To do this, we have to play 1D-2NT (and 1C-2NT for consistency) as non-forcing, showing 11-12, and more importantly, 1D-3C as invitational, and certainly passable, showing long clubs (6 expected) and the strength for a traditional 2C response. Both these responses deny a four card major. (Yes, Ch., I know I'm stating the obvious again but it might not be obvious to everybody in this forum.)
Without prior agreement, I would treat a 2C response to 1D the same way that you did before you played 2/1.
I tend to lead fourth best - as opposed to the best suit, the second best suit, or the third best suit for our side
#3
Posted 2004-July-19, 04:03
It's forcing to 4m. We want to be in 3NT, and perhaps 5m, but that's not sure yet. If 3NT is impossible, we might end up in 4m, sometimes in 5m.
"It may be rude to leave to go to the bathroom, but it's downright stupid to sit there and piss yourself" - blackshoe
#4
Posted 2004-July-19, 05:24
well............... only if you have agreed that with P - so then U HAVE to alert opps to that fact
#5
Posted 2004-July-19, 05:56
I had always though it was only forcing to 2NT (limit+ values), untill I found it written somewhere over the net (think it was the bridgebase advanced system, althou not quite sure), still think playingit as naturalnon forcing makes more sense, just be careful that opener rebids 2♦ with minimum balanced hands, bidding 2NT with any 12-14 endplays responder in the bidding.
#6
Posted 2004-July-19, 17:54
the 'right' answer depends on who you are and what you and partner agreed... normally, 2C over 1D is a game force in 2/1... some do play it as forcing to 2nt or 4m
rosenkrantz in his book 'bid to win, play for pleasure' recommends that *any* repeat of a 2/1 is to play, not gf... for example, 1S : 2H : 2S : 3H, tho there are a few exception auctions
rosenkrantz in his book 'bid to win, play for pleasure' recommends that *any* repeat of a 2/1 is to play, not gf... for example, 1S : 2H : 2S : 3H, tho there are a few exception auctions
"Paul Krugman is a stupid person's idea of what a smart person sounds like." Newt Gingrich (paraphrased)
#7
Posted 2004-July-20, 10:09
The only non-forcing auctions in my system are:
1♦-2♣-2NT showing 11-13 balanced
and
1♦-2♣-2♦-3♣
The latter generally means that the 1♦ opener holds 4441/4450 shape, otherwise the opps are bidding
Paul
1♦-2♣-2NT showing 11-13 balanced
and
1♦-2♣-2♦-3♣
The latter generally means that the 1♦ opener holds 4441/4450 shape, otherwise the opps are bidding
Paul
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