What are you supposed to do? You missed a chance, now what?
#1
Posted 2010-March-12, 12:38
♠Q65
♥K9
♦AQT764
♣KT
Both Red, you open 1♦ after RHO's initial Pass. 1♥ onj your left 1NT by partner, Pass by RHO. Yes, opening 1Nt would have been so much better but, what do you do now?
wyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:
rbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:
My YouTube Channel
#2
Posted 2010-March-12, 12:44
#3
Posted 2010-March-12, 12:46
George Carlin
#6
Posted 2010-March-12, 14:00
Plus I have to keep up the streak of always disagreeing with clee.
#7
Posted 2010-March-12, 14:01
bed
#8
Posted 2010-March-12, 14:19
Opening this hand 1NT at IMPs is a good way to avoid a good diamond slam or game.
#9
Posted 2010-March-12, 14:23
Simple, no?
#10
Posted 2010-March-13, 02:19
ArtK78, on Mar 12 2010, 01:19 PM, said:
Opening this hand 1NT at IMPs is a good way to avoid a good diamond slam or game.
Funny, I was thinking that opening this 1N is a good way to get to a good 3N or 4M game, and even right-siding the sucker...
#11
Posted 2010-March-13, 03:11
#12
Posted 2010-March-13, 03:56
I also just love the argument that opening 1NT with 14, showing 15-17, will miss a slam but bidding 1♦ then 2♦ which is somewhere in the 10-15 vicinity will let you find it.
#13
Posted 2010-March-13, 05:01
Echo2 -- when you have a 1NT opener, there is no answer to what you should do later after having not opened 1NT, because the hand is already incapable of description. Whatever you bid now shows a hand that is not the one you were dealt, because with that hand you would have opened 1NT.
Echo3 -- I agree that it is absurd to suggest that opening 1♦ (possible 11-count, 3+ diamonds) is more likely to bend us toward slam than 1NT (2+ diamonds). That only happens if partner is a moron.
-P.J. Painter.
#14
Posted 2010-March-13, 05:03
As we didn't open 1NT partner will now we have an intermidiate unbalanced hand.
Do not underestimate the power of the dark side. Or the ninth trumph.
Best Regards Ole Berg
_____________________________________
We should always assume 2/1 unless otherwise stated, because:
- If the original poster didn't bother to state his system, that means that he thinks it's obvious what he's playing. The only people who think this are 2/1 players.
Gnasher
#15
Posted 2010-March-13, 05:47
#16
Posted 2010-March-13, 09:17
2NT. I see nothing wrong with 3NT, partner.
#17
Posted 2010-March-13, 13:03
jdonn, on Mar 13 2010, 02:56 AM, said:
I also just love the argument that opening 1NT with 14, showing 15-17, will miss a slam but bidding 1♦ then 2♦ which is somewhere in the 10-15 vicinity will let you find it.
I think that opening 1NT is certainly reasonable, and I would likely do it myself, but I think that last sentence in your post is nonsense: surely we will miss the (very) occassional slam this way.
Slam is not about having X HCP, it is about tricks, and opposite the right hand 6+ dimaonds can be worth more than the extra queen. And it is not like partner has to guess the contract over 2♦, he can find out if you have 10 or 15. Many partnerships (including all of mine) cannot even ask about diamonds over 1NT when responder has a 3442 hand or the like.
#18
Posted 2010-March-13, 13:17
MarkDean, on Mar 13 2010, 12:03 PM, said:
jdonn, on Mar 13 2010, 02:56 AM, said:
I also just love the argument that opening 1NT with 14, showing 15-17, will miss a slam but bidding 1♦ then 2♦ which is somewhere in the 10-15 vicinity will let you find it.
I think that opening 1NT is certainly reasonable, and I would likely do it myself, but I think that last sentence in your post is nonsense: surely we will miss the (very) occassional slam this way.
Slam is not about having X HCP, it is about tricks, and opposite the right hand 6+ dimaonds can be worth more than the extra queen. And it is not like partner has to guess the contract over 2♦, he can find out if you have 10 or 15. Many partnerships (including all of mine) cannot even ask about diamonds over 1NT when responder has a 3442 hand or the like.
AKxx Qx Kxx Axxx
1D-1S
2D-2H
2N-3D
3N-?
Maybe you would bid 4C and maybe you would pass, but the point is that it's not obvious at all to get to all of these slams you automatically miss by opening 1N.
#19
Posted 2010-March-13, 14:08
MarkDean, on Mar 13 2010, 02:03 PM, said:
jdonn, on Mar 13 2010, 02:56 AM, said:
I also just love the argument that opening 1NT with 14, showing 15-17, will miss a slam but bidding 1♦ then 2♦ which is somewhere in the 10-15 vicinity will let you find it.
I think that opening 1NT is certainly reasonable, and I would likely do it myself, but I think that last sentence in your post is nonsense: surely we will miss the (very) occassional slam this way.
Slam is not about having X HCP, it is about tricks, and opposite the right hand 6+ dimaonds can be worth more than the extra queen. And it is not like partner has to guess the contract over 2♦, he can find out if you have 10 or 15. Many partnerships (including all of mine) cannot even ask about diamonds over 1NT when responder has a 3442 hand or the like.
Partner doesn't have to guess the contract over 1NT either. If your system is inadequate I don't know what to tell you, but even if you could convince me 1NT is worse for slam bidding (which I doubt you can) it's so much better for game bidding that I don't think it would matter.
#20
Posted 2010-March-14, 00:12
rogerclee, on Mar 13 2010, 12:17 PM, said:
MarkDean, on Mar 13 2010, 12:03 PM, said:
jdonn, on Mar 13 2010, 02:56 AM, said:
I also just love the argument that opening 1NT with 14, showing 15-17, will miss a slam but bidding 1♦ then 2♦ which is somewhere in the 10-15 vicinity will let you find it.
I think that opening 1NT is certainly reasonable, and I would likely do it myself, but I think that last sentence in your post is nonsense: surely we will miss the (very) occassional slam this way.
Slam is not about having X HCP, it is about tricks, and opposite the right hand 6+ dimaonds can be worth more than the extra queen. And it is not like partner has to guess the contract over 2♦, he can find out if you have 10 or 15. Many partnerships (including all of mine) cannot even ask about diamonds over 1NT when responder has a 3442 hand or the like.
AKxx Qx Kxx Axxx
1D-1S
2D-2H
2N-3D
3N-?
Maybe you would bid 4C and maybe you would pass, but the point is that it's not obvious at all to get to all of these slams you automatically miss by opening 1N.
I am confused by your example. Is the other hand supposed to be the one in the OP? Why did he not show 3 spades over 2H? Why did he bid 3NT over 3D?
And how do you think the auction would go with this hand opposite a 1NT opener? It is not clear to me that you would get to slam, and certainly not to 6D opposite some similar hands where that is better than nt (like Kx AJxx KJx Axxx).
Anyhow, I agree we are not going to get to all slams either way, I just think it is clear that opening 1D will get to some good slams that will be missed opening 1NT (however, I am not trying to argue that makes opening 1D a better bid).

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