[inquiry]

In a thread in the Beginner/Intermediate forum, Rado raised a question over the meaning of

1m-(P)-1M-(P)
4M

1m-(P)-1M-(2D)
4M

1m-(P)-1M-(3D)
4M

1m-(P)-1M-(4D)
4M

Here I want to deal with the first two of these, let's start with number 2. We follow the guidence of Robson/Segal on this auction to a large degree... where 2H/3H/4H are all weak. We use 2NT to show a constuctive raise or better and 3D to show a mixed raise. I think many of you use this 2NT bid this way..... now to somethign really diffferent


1m-(P)-1M-(P)
2NT

We use this 2NT the SAME WAY, it shows a four card major fit and strong hand. How strong? Even game force. We lose the natural 2NT rebid and we can discuss what we do in that case (new minor forcing by opener). We use our limit plus responses to jacoby 2NT by respondder over this 2NT. So for example, if by agreement, you wanted to you could play 1m-1M-2N-3C-3N the hand rado uses as a direct 3NT in his science, and save 1m-1M-3N for the hand with lots of diamond tricks.

What else does this 2NT do? We can use 1m-1M-2M and 1m-1M-3M as much more narrow ranges. the second shows 15-16 points (count distribution). We use the jump to 4H as the distributional monster but low on hcp (otherwise 2NT). We also use 1m-1M-3m to show good six card minor and 3 card fit for responders major and non-forcing.

Ben