[Little Kid]

Scoring: South

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South being dealer auction proceeds:
Pass-(Pass)-1♥-(Pass)
1♠ - (Pass)- 2♦-(Pass)
2NT-AP

Who is at fault for getting too high? 3rd/4th seat openers can be light (4cM possible) and we 2way reverse drury.

[manudude03]

North should just pass 1♠. Agree with south's actions.

[helene_t]

I think your auction is normal.

South does not have to cater to a possible light opening, since the 2♦ rebid confirms a normal opening. With subninimal values, North would have passed 1♠. He could consider doing so with this hand, but I think making a rebid is normal.

Some would prefer a 2♠ rebid instead of 2♦ (3-card raises are very hot on this forum), but on this deal it doesn't matter (assuming S can still bid a natural nonforcing 2NT if North bids 2♠).

[gnasher]

It's just normal to get too high on these hands. If you want to get to most of the good games, you have to accept that sometimes you'll reach a partscore that's too high for comfort.

I think a more normal auction is pass-1♥;1♠-2♠;2NT

[Hanoi5]

I think I prefer:

P-1♥
1♠-2♦
2♥-P

But passing 1♠ wouldn't be that bad either. I blame South mostly (75-25).

[PhantomSac]

I would never consider doing anything other than passing 1S with the north hand. I hate to result, but it seems typical that partner game tries and we are too high.

Bidding is obv good if we have game (and with prime cards, it's possible to construct hands which make game), or if we can stop in 2 whatever and make when they would have balanced over 2S and made 3C, but the latter seems like an unlikely parlay. The former is only useful if you raise to 2S, which is why if I did bid that would be my bid (trying to get to 4S). Bidding 2D will pretty much never get you to game (since you're passing all game tries), so it seems to have very little upside.

[whereagles]

South certainly must bid 2NT. He has just about as good a passed hand as he could have: max with filling honors.

North could have passed 1♠ yes, but I find that a bit double-dummy... his 2♦ seems pretty normal. Reverse his minor suits and then 2♣ over 1♠ would be a bit mandatory, for opps are more likely to compete in diamonds and you want to show a 2nd suit then.

[jdonn]

Don't know why north didn't pass. He has 11 opposite a passed hand and the risk of going minus with 3 card support is big when you go higher. As for bidding 2♦ instead of 2♠, 2♠ is completely normal for me and I believe strongly it's better but I know there are many people/groups for whom 2♦ is normal so I won't start the debate about it.

[whereagles]

actually, I'm one of the persons who'd bid 2♠ over 1 I didn't mention it because in wierdness you guys rate me as "dangerously close to Ken" already lol.

[CSGibson]

North. When you have a sub-minimum, it's your job to pass when you've found a fit (assuming your hand hasn't improved). Pass 1 spade.

[gwnn]

whereagles, on Mar 7 2010, 08:55 AM, said:

actually, I'm one of the persons who'd bid 2♠ over 1 I didn't mention it because in wierdness you guys rate me as "dangerously close to Ken" already lol.

I'd bid 2♠ also if partner weren't a passed hand. Like this pass looks better to me.

[P_Marlowe]

Hi,

The bidding was fine.

Depending on agreement, 2S instead of 2D, but would not have made
a big difference, since South has to make an inv. move.

The North hand is close to a 1st / 2nd seat opener.

With kind regards
Marlowe

[Hanoi5]

I didn't quite notice that South held 11 card points. So I understand his need to bid 2NT now. 2♥ would show 'preference' with a sort of bad hand and partner should pass with hands where game is on opposite 11.

I think passing one spade is the best agreement in such a situation when you open light and partner bids a suit where you hold 3 cards. However there'll be times when opener will have to continue bidding even if holding a bad hand, for example:

♠Ax
♥KJTxx
♦Kxxxx
♣x

But I guess then South will rebid his diamonds over 2NT? And South will pass?

Or:

♠A
♥KJTxx
♦Kxxx
♣xxx

And I guess in this case 3NT wouldn't go down? (or maybe only one down)