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meaningless sequences?

#1 User is offline   pretender 

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Posted 2010-February-24, 20:33

I've encountered this example many times.

Me GIB
1x-1M
2N-3M
3N-4M

GIB doesnt have a slam try, and in my experience always bids 4M over my 3N anyway. So why the 3M bid?
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#2 User is offline   arigreen 

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Posted 2010-February-24, 20:51

GIB bids 3M any time it holds 6-cards in M and a gameforcing hand.
2N promised 2 or 3 cards in M.
Over 3N, GIB knows it has an 8-card fit in M, so by rule it now bids 4M.

Perhaps this is not optimal, but it should work well in practice.
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