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How high to raise

#1 User is offline   eyhung 

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Posted 2010-February-19, 14:33

Matchpoints, decent opponents, neither vul

Scoring: MP


1 1
2 ?

Is this hand worth 3 with a plan to pull to 4 if partner bids 3NT? Or is this worth just a gentle 2?

EDIT: We don't bid this way with 4 diamonds and 5 clubs.
Eugene Hung
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#2 User is offline   pooltuna 

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Posted 2010-February-19, 15:10

eyhung, on Feb 19 2010, 03:33 PM, said:

Matchpoints, decent opponents, neither vul

Dealer: North
Vul: None
Scoring: MP
JT72
AT6
96543
5
 


1  1
2  ?

Is this hand worth 3 with a plan to pull to 4 if partner bids 3NT?  Or is this worth just a gentle 2?

I would treat it as a limit raise and as such call 3

EDIT: my initial response assumed you restricted your auctions like this to promising 5 if you could bid this way the same with 4 and 5 then I would settle for 2
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#3 User is offline   Jlall 

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Posted 2010-February-19, 15:10

I definitely prefer 2D. By bidding 3D, you are saying that you want to be in game opposite many of the "max" hands that will pass a 2D preference. IMO for game to be good we'll need him to have a hand good enough to bid over 2D.

Also it's MP so getting too high and going down 1 is very costly.

I mean yeah it's god several very nice features, 5 trumps, a stiff, an ace, JT T in the majors could have some use, but at the end of the day it's a 5 count and we're talking about playing 5 of a minor, we just need more wood imo.
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#4 User is offline   Little Kid 

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Posted 2010-February-19, 15:23

2. Partner can still move over 2 with 15-17, if he doesn't I'm happy in 2.
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#5 User is offline   eyhung 

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Posted 2010-February-19, 15:50

The issue is that there are non 15-17s that will not move over 2 that make game reasonable. Any controls besides the Club King are what's needed, not the KQ of clubs or jacks.

x Kx AKxxx Axxxx (the prime perfecto!)

void QJxx KQxxx Axxx

are examples of hands that offer good play for game.

Anyway given the power of the likely 10-card trump fit, the side ace, and the right singleton, I was thinking there don't seem to be as many -1 hands (or if we do, the opponent can make a major partial) as hands where we could reach a good game opposite a pass of 2. But I can definitely respect 2 -- it's the normal bid. Just wondering whether 3 is a good upgrade here.
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#6 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2010-February-19, 19:30

2 just seems normal to me. When you play partner for perfect hands...
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#7 User is offline   MFA 

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Posted 2010-February-20, 04:00

I bid 3 for sure. This hand has adequate playing strength for diamonds, so I refuse to be a bean counter. I would not be happy in 2. I would be very anxious that partner will take 11 or 12 tricks with hands where he would have expected 2 to be in danger before seing dummy. -, Kxx, Axxxx, Axxxx is a decent perfecto slam.
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#8 User is offline   olliebol 

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Posted 2010-February-20, 06:44

If you bid 3 with this you are going to end up in 5 very often because i would not be passing 3nt. It seems excessive to me
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#9 User is offline   arigreen 

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Posted 2010-February-20, 11:57

olliebol, on Feb 20 2010, 05:44 AM, said:

If you bid 3 with this you are going to end up in 5 very often because i would not be passing 3nt. It seems excessive to me

Or you might end up in 4. If partner bids 3N and you pull to 4, shouldn't it show a hand like this? Perhaps a bit stronger, but it should be a hand with few high card points but excellent playing strength for diamonds. Partner should be well positioned to pass or bid 5 depending on his hand.

For example, x.KQx.KQxxx.KQxx will pass and partner will have good play for 4. This assumes that partner would not expect you to bid only 4 holding two aces.

x.KQx.KQxxx.AQxx will raise to 5.

Maybe my assumptions are flawed, but it seems to me that if partner has 5 diamonds and bids 3N, we are usually safe at the 4-level, and safe at the 5 level if he raises.

BTW my first reaction to this problem was that 2 was clear, but the more I think of it, the more I like 3, planning to pull 3N to 4.
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#10 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2010-February-20, 12:05

2D--unless 3D is defined as a preempt after a simple response, extending 4SF to invites. And I don't like that idea, either.
"Bidding Spades to show spades can work well." (Kenberg)
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#11 User is offline   nigel_k 

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Posted 2010-February-20, 13:45

I think you have to bid 2 because 3 is a different hand. Thought it doesn't feel right and if it wasn't matchpoints then 3 and pull 3NT to 4 might be ok.

We would be in a better position if we had raised diamonds immediately. Our current problem was easily foreseeable and bidding 1 could also have let opponents enter the auction too cheaply.
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#12 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2010-February-21, 02:07

It's an easy 3 bid for me. If pard now bids 3NT it might very well go down, but I think it's worth the risk. If pard has, say

x
KJx
AKxxx
Axxx

he'll probably bid 3 over my 3 and we get to 5/6, while he could have passed 2 had I bid that.
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