[karlson]

Do you have a meta-agreement on when pass is forcing after a penalty pass?
As a simple example, we had this auction yesterday:

(2♦)-p-(p)-x
(p)-p-(2♥)-p
(p)

Do you think doubler's pass is forcing? If yes, what is responder supposed to do with ♦KJTxx and out? If no, what should doubler do with a good hand but relatively bad hearts (I dunno, say AKxx Axx x AQJxx).

[Jlall]

karlson, on Jan 26 2010, 02:16 PM, said:

Do you have a meta-agreement on when pass is forcing after a penalty pass?

Definitely not

[gnasher]

Jlall, on Jan 26 2010, 08:41 PM, said:

karlson, on Jan 26 2010, 02:16 PM, said:

Do you have a meta-agreement on when pass is forcing after a penalty pass?

Definitely not

Do you mean that it's definitely not forcing, or you definitely don't have a [meta-]agreement about whether it's forcing?

[Jlall]

gnasher, on Jan 26 2010, 02:53 PM, said:

Jlall, on Jan 26 2010, 08:41 PM, said:

karlson, on Jan 26 2010, 02:16 PM, said:

Do you have a meta-agreement on when pass is forcing after a penalty pass?

Definitely not

Do you mean that it's definitely not forcing, or you definitely don't have a [meta-]agreement about whether it's forcing?

I meant my meta agreement is that it is definitely not forcing heh. I would hate to have that agreement since I will pass t/o Xs with 6 reasonable cards in their suit and nothing (or at the 2+ level I'll pass with 5 reasonable cards of their suit and nothing). Of course usually I won't have nothing at all, but I would still need quite a good hand to want to be in a force, and at low levels I don't think there's that much to be gained from being in a force.

[Fluffy]

forcing when the pass was on a NT contract (even when the X was conventional).

forcing when the passer has shown values (opened the bidding)

[Ant590]

With one partner I play that if we convert a t/o double, or make a penalty double, passes are forcing unless (1) we bid, or (2) they jump

[hanp]

How about an auction like this:

1S - (2C) - p - (p)
Dbl - (p) - p - (Rdbl)
p - (2D) - ??

Would you play pass as forcing here? If not, what does a double by responder show?

[Jlall]

hanp, on Jan 27 2010, 02:12 AM, said:

How about an auction like this:

1S - (2C) - p - (p)
Dbl - (p) - p - (Rdbl)
p - (2D) - ??

Would you play pass as forcing here? If not, what does a double by responder show?

No this is not a forcing pass, double shows some diamonds.

[FrancesHinden]

I usually play that pass is non-forcing, unless one of the following applies:
- The passer has already shown values
- Either hand has already set up a forcing auction (e.g. by a redouble)
- I play 1NT dbl 2m P as forcing (special case)


The sample auctions shown in this thread are definitely not forcing.