[InTime]

Is a reverse after partner has passed 100% forcing?
For example:
1♣, (1♥), Pass, (Pass)
2♠, (Pass), ? Is this 100% forcing for partner?
or
1♦, (1♠), Pass, (Pass)
2♥, (Pass), ? Same question
or
1♣, (Pass), Pass, (1♠),
2♥, (Pass), ? Same question

If not . . . with what kind of values should partner show a little bit of life?

Regards

[P_Marlowe]

Hi,

The reverses you described are not forcing, but of course opener is
showing a good hand.
First of all p is asked, which strain is the better, i.e. if he thinks,
the new suit offers the best chance, than he will pass, otherwise
he will correct back.
Partner will show some live, if the reverse revealed a (good) fit,
and if he has a max., e.g. due to a distributional feature, if you
need a number - 6points.

With kind regards
Marlowe

[Codo]

It depends a little on your style.

If you never ever open strong two suiters with one of a minor- then your next bid cannot be logically forcing.

If you do, then at least the jump in Nr. 1 is forcing.
To me your examples Nr.2 and Nr. 3 are nonforcing but I would always move with a fit and a ruffing value.

[gnasher]

InTime, on Jan 15 2010, 12:56 PM, said:

Is a reverse after partner has passed 100% forcing?

No. All of your examples are non-forcing. There's a case for playing the second sequence as a weakish 5-6.

Quote

If not . . . with what kind of values should partner show a little bit of life?

Fit matters rather more than values, because opener is likely to be distributional as well as quite strong.

In your example sequences (assuming that they're all played as strong) responder should raise any time he has 4-card support for the major, regardless of strength. For jump preference to the minor, he doesn't need any more than 3-card support and one fitting top honour.

[helene_t]

In all three cases, opener would usually double with extra values and 5+4 in his two suits. So he either has no tolerance for the fourth suit, or he has a very offensive hand that doesn't want partner to pass with 5-6 cards in opps' suit. A 5-6 shape is possible and I think your first example should actually promise five spades. In the two other cases he could also be 4-6.

[mcphee]

I consider all of these moves to be F to 3 of the minor or 3 of the reversed or j/s bid. We can make the assumption partner saw our initial pass and that they expect us to TELL more about our hand which does not include passing. If they are not prepared to see a complete pail hit as dummy they should have done something else.

[Free]

We made a non forcing opening, partner didn't promisse anything, so no bid we make can be forcing in theory. There may be merrit in playing it as forcing in certain situations ofcourse

[FrancesHinden]

Sequences 2 and 3 are definitely not forcing.
The first is more interesting. I think it's still not forcing unless you don't have a forcing opening bid. But I wouldn't pass it as responder unless I had a really horrible 3=4=5=1 or so.

[CSGibson]

Follow-up question - if you do consider it forcing, or if you consider it non-forcing but you want to make a courtesy raise, do you play ingberman still?

[P_Marlowe]

CSGibson, on Jan 19 2010, 03:15 AM, said:

Follow-up question - if you do consider it forcing, or if you consider it non-forcing but you want to make a courtesy raise, do you play ingberman still?

Good question, but since a raise would be nonforcing for us, I am not
sure Ingberman / Lebensohl makes a lot of sense.
But it wont hurt either, and it may well be helpful to have the chance to
distiguish a "good" raise of openers first suit from a "bad" raise /
preference.

With kind regards
Marlowe