Quick question
#1
Posted 2009-November-24, 09:38
1♥-(2♦)-3♣-(P)
4♦-(P)-4♥
4♦=Splinter for clubs.
4♥=To play or cue?
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#2
Posted 2009-November-24, 09:43
#3
Posted 2009-November-24, 10:04
Opener, by splinterring implies that 5♣ will be ok.
Having a ♥ cue available helps a lot for bidding a ♣ slam.
#4
Posted 2009-November-24, 10:30
helene_t, on Nov 24 2009, 10:43 AM, said:
Right
#5
Posted 2009-November-24, 10:32
The unexpected 4♦ splinter has made this an awkward situation, but it doesn't change the fact that 4♥ is nonforcing.
#6
Posted 2009-November-24, 10:43
ArtK78, on Nov 24 2009, 09:32 AM, said:
The unexpected 4♦ splinter has made this an awkward situation, but it doesn't change the fact that 4♥ is nonforcing.
extend this just a bit. If 3C commits us to game, opener's splinter has made it an awkward situation and should be avoided if it leaves no room for responder to show heart support AND desire to explore slam.
You might say that raising clubs would have the same effect, without benefit of showing the diamond shortness. But, it does leave 4D available for agreed use.
#7
Posted 2009-November-24, 10:50
#8
Posted 2009-November-24, 10:51
#9
Posted 2009-November-24, 10:52
TylerE, on Nov 24 2009, 11:51 AM, said:
In case partner needs help deciding what to do over 5♦ or 4♠. Or in case you don't know which suit you belong in for slam opposite club support.
#10
Posted 2009-November-24, 11:25
I don't think 4♥ is a cue. Over 4♦, I would personally play that 4♠ is RKCB, 4NT a suggested land, and 5♣ to play. Having one cue available does not impress me much.
I also don't think 4♥ is strictly "to play." If I have a hand worthy of showing clubs before raising hearts, I either make a fit jump in clubs (4♣ the first time) or decide "Oh well" because it gets too muddy to bury heart support for a moment in a competitive auction that starts with my first call at the three-level.
So, what is left?
IMO, 4♥ is a choice bid. I'd expect Responder to have Ax, Kx, or maybe Qx. An offer to play 4♥ if Opener thinks that this is best. Responder probably has some diamond card to disrupt a tap defense, a card that is also a negative feature for slam purposes. Maybe something like ♠xxx ♥Ax ♦Kxx ♣KQxxx? Opener might have something like ♠Kxx ♥KQJxx ♦x ♣AJxx, where 4♥ looks like a nice contract.
If Opener has first-round control in spades, he can still move, expecting the hearts to be solid, if he chooses, bidding 4♠ as RKCB for clubs.
-P.J. Painter.
#11
Posted 2009-November-24, 13:43
jdonn, on Nov 24 2009, 05:52 PM, said:
TylerE, on Nov 24 2009, 11:51 AM, said:
In case partner needs help deciding what to do over 5♦ or 4♠.
Suppose that you have that hand-type. Will partner be better placed after
1♥-(2♦)-3♣-(5♦)
than after
1♥-(2♦)-3♦-(5♦)
Another alternative would be to play 4♣ as a fit jump. A splinter in the suit they haven't overcalled in is pretty rare, and doesn't often lead to a slam anyway.
Quote
If you have that, once partner splinters in support of clubs, aren't you likely to belong in clubs, and unlikely to want to sign off in game? You can always bid 5NT later.
#12
Posted 2009-November-24, 14:00
gnasher, on Nov 24 2009, 02:43 PM, said:
jdonn, on Nov 24 2009, 05:52 PM, said:
TylerE, on Nov 24 2009, 11:51 AM, said:
In case partner needs help deciding what to do over 5♦ or 4♠.
Suppose that you have that hand-type. Will partner be better placed after
1♥-(2♦)-3♣-(5♦)
than after
1♥-(2♦)-3♦-(5♦)
Another alternative would be to play 4♣ as a fit jump. A splinter in the suit they haven't overcalled in is pretty rare, and doesn't often lead to a slam anyway.
I think it's very plausible that he will be better placed after the club bid, on many 3-6 hands for example. And I do play 4♣ as a fit jump, but promising 4 card support.
#14
Posted 2009-November-24, 20:50
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#15
Posted 2009-November-25, 01:27
Roland
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