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When I overcall I either have a suit or I have values. It is foolish to overcall with

#1 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2009-November-15, 03:03

neither.

unfavorable at imps we pass in 1st seat and it goes p-p-p-1C.

Txxxx
Axx
Axx
xx

all vulnerable at imps RHO deals and opens 1C

AKQ
Jxxxx
xxx
xx
... and I can prove it with my usual, flawless logic.
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#2 User is offline   kenberg 

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Posted 2009-November-15, 06:44

Top hand overcalled a spade and the final contract was 3C doubled and making? And I suppose if the opponents are left to their own devices they play 1NT down 1? Ah, bridge is a cruel game. I think I can easily restrain myself with that top hand but to each his own.
Ken
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#3 User is offline   andy_h 

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Posted 2009-November-15, 07:50

1) At white I would bid. At red I would pass but bid if one of my Aces were in spades.
2) 1
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#4 User is offline   Jlall 

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Posted 2009-November-15, 16:18

I'd overcall both.
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#5 User is offline   655321 

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Posted 2009-November-15, 16:30

I also overcall both. The first hand seems to me a very clear 1 overcall.
That's impossible. No one can give more than one hundred percent. By definition that is the most anyone can give.
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#6 User is offline   Codo 

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Posted 2009-November-16, 05:54

Being a passed hand, both are clear overcalls for me.
Kind Regards

Roland


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#7 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2009-November-16, 05:59

you're only a passed hand in the first board if that makes any difference and only now I realize that neither board complies with my readability standards.
... and I can prove it with my usual, flawless logic.
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