[zheddh]

andy_h, on Oct 22 2009, 09:35 AM, said:

If we overcall 1NT and proceed to game, then surely we can do that if we double as well! Conversely, if we don't have game then doubling will get you to the right partscore.

Just yesterday, this deal happened

Scoring: IMP

---

(pass) - pass - (1♣) - Dbl
(pass) - 2♠ - (pass) - ?

My opponent chose to pass here and 3NT was cold. Is bidding on clear?

[dake50]

What would a "trappish" pass then double look like?
Whatever that hand is, IT is not in the current direct action.

[Phil]

zheddh, on Oct 23 2009, 12:02 AM, said:

andy_h, on Oct 22 2009, 09:35 AM, said:

If we overcall 1NT and proceed to game, then surely we can do that if we double as well! Conversely, if we don't have game then doubling will get you to the right partscore.

Just yesterday, this deal happened

Scoring: IMP

---

(pass) - pass - (1♣) - Dbl
(pass) - 2♠ - (pass) - ?

My opponent chose to pass here and 3NT was cold. Is bidding on clear?

Yes I think South needs to take another call. We are in the game zone assuming 2♠ shows about 8-11. I would vote for 3♣ as a general probe.

I didn't start this thread to deal with getting to game with 15 opposite 10, although your problem is a good one to discuss as an advancing player. I was more interested in the matchpoint angle when partner responds in a minor to your TOx.

[hanp]

jdonn, on Oct 22 2009, 07:23 PM, said:

gnasher, on Oct 22 2009, 12:25 PM, said:

Jlall, on Oct 22 2009, 04:04 PM, said:

I would never X a precision diamond with 4423 and Ax or Kx. Sometimes with (43)24 and Kx I would if I had exactly 16.

Is that what you meant to say? And if so, can you explain the rationale?

I bet it's that if he doubles on say 4324 and that exact strength he has an uncomfortable decision if partner responds in his three card suit, where maybe he would feel he has to pass but a game could be missed.

OK then I will bet that he didn't mean to say that. What shall we bet for?