Winstonm, on Oct 18 2009, 04:37 AM, said:
The problem as I see it with Keynesian-like methods being attempted is that the stimulus has not promoted an increase in aggregate demand but replaced a large share of aggregate demand, and thus it is not a one-time event but will have to be repeated again and again.
The argument, as I'm sure you know, is not whether aggregate demand increased. But whether aggregate demand increased relative to what would happen.
The analogy is when you are sky diving you might be accelerating in your declining altitude, then you deploy a parachute, a smart person would realize that even though you kept getting lower and lower the parachute worked to decrease your decline relative to what it would have been. You don't argue the parachute didn't work because you kept falling.
Likewise, the argument should be what was the difference relative to what would have taken place. A lot of work has been done relative to what the gov't multiplier generally is for both tax cuts and increases in spending.
But it is pretty silly, IMO, for non-experts to debate this. While experts might not agree, at least they do more than think about things in silly blog post and board threads. I mean can you make a primary researched argument against Christina Romer and David Romer's work showing the multiplier to be 1.6 (that is you get back 60% more than you spend) based on looking at gov't changes isolated from other effects over the past ~100 years?