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two diamond related hands from the club

#1 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2009-October-06, 19:07

KQJx
Jx
T98xxxx
-

p-(2 precision)-? all vul imps

AQxxx
Qxx
x
KQxx

1-p-1-3
3NT-p-? nobody vul imps
... and I can prove it with my usual, flawless logic.
      George Carlin
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#2 User is offline   Jlall 

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Posted 2009-October-06, 20:51

If I played weak jump overcalls I would bid 3D on the first one, but usually don't play that. If partner has a diamond fit our hand has huge potential, and it's nice to mess them up a bit.

On the second one I would bid 4D hoping to bid keycard over a 4M response from partner and get to 7 sensibly if possible or stay out of 6.
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#3 User is offline   Codo 

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Posted 2009-October-07, 00:49

1. Pass even if I had a weak bid in diamonds avaiable.
But I had liked to have the ... to bid 3 diamond.

2. 4 followed by 4 NT
Kind Regards

Roland


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More system is not the answer...
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#4 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2009-October-07, 03:00

Jlall, on Oct 7 2009, 03:51 AM, said:

If I played weak jump overcalls I would bid 3D on the first one, but usually don't play that. If partner has a diamond fit our hand has huge potential, and it's nice to mess them up a bit.

On the second one I would bid 4D hoping to bid keycard over a 4M response from partner and get to 7 sensibly if possible or stay out of 6.

I also don't play weak jump overcalls over a Precision 2, but I'm not sure that it's best. If it's correct to play
  (1) [Precision] 3
as preemptive, surely it's right to play
  (2) [Precision] 3
as preemptive too? In the 2 auction there is more doubt about major-suit fits, so the benefits of preempting should be greater.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#5 User is offline   Jlall 

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Posted 2009-October-07, 03:03

gnasher, on Oct 7 2009, 04:00 AM, said:

Jlall, on Oct 7 2009, 03:51 AM, said:

If I played weak jump overcalls I would bid 3D on the first one, but usually don't play that. If partner has a diamond fit our hand has huge potential, and it's nice to mess them up a bit.

On the second one I would bid 4D hoping to bid keycard over a 4M response from partner and get to 7 sensibly if possible or stay out of 6.

I also don't play weak jump overcalls over a Precision 2, but I'm not sure that it's best. If it's correct to play
  (1) [Precision] 3
as preemptive, surely it's right to play
  (2) [Precision] 3
as preemptive too? In the 2 auction there is more doubt about major-suit fits, so the benefits of preempting should be greater.

I agree with this, I also don't play WJO after 1H ? if vul. It seems weird to play differently over 1H and a precision 2C though.
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#6 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2009-October-07, 03:10

On the second one, does 4 agree hearts, or is it initially choice-of-games?
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#7 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2009-October-10, 19:03

gnasher, on Oct 7 2009, 09:10 AM, said:

On the second one, does 4 agree hearts, or is it initially choice-of-games?

This was mostly what I was thinking about. I didn't know what it was so I tried the dubious 5 bid, which since undiscussed I knew partner would take as just natural slam try, partner passed and we were off two aces but had enough trumps so made.

The second one I bid 4 which kept them out of slam, but I wouldn't do it again. I wondered if anyone else would try it, I guess I'm alone.
... and I can prove it with my usual, flawless logic.
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