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Clear cut tricks (error in the Orange Book?) EBU

#1 User is offline   campboy 

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Posted 2009-September-11, 05:31

I just heard from a correspondent who was ruled against for opening 2 (edit: Reverse) Benji on KQJTxxx AKx xxx ---, which he believed had 8 clear-cut tricks.

The updated Orange book on the EBU website contains the following definition:

Quote

Clear-cut tricks are clarified as tricks expected to make opposite a void in partner’s hand and the second best suit break.


It also gives examples, which include "KQJxxxx = 4 tricks, KQJTxxx = 5 tricks". However, these differ from the same examples in the L&E minutes of February, which give 5 and 6 tricks respectively. Barring a trump promotion, those in the minutes seem to be correct. Is this an error in the OB?
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#2 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2009-September-11, 06:07

You are not allowed to make an artificial strong opening with less than 14 HCPs. That might be the issue with the hand in question.
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#3 User is offline   campboy 

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Posted 2009-September-11, 06:18

The current rules on minimum permitted agreements for artificial strong openings in the EBU are:

Hands which have 16+ HCP OR meet Rule of 25 OR 8 clear-cut tricks and enough HCP for a 1-level opening.

The old rule of "Rule of 25 AND 14+ HCP" was replaced by the above. The TD involved was definitely working from an up-to-date printout, as he quoted the "KQJTxxx has 5 CCT" directly.
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#4 User is offline   bluejak 

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  Posted 2009-September-11, 08:22

I am investigating.

Incidentally, note that when campboy says "OR 8 clear-cut tricks and enough HCP for a 1-level opening" he has missed out the important "subject to proper disclosure". If you play 2 as including this last, saying "Benjamin" when asked is MI.
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#5 User is offline   Sven Pran 

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Posted 2009-September-11, 11:29

campboy, on Sep 11 2009, 01:31 PM, said:

The updated Orange book on the EBU website contains the following definition:

Quote

Clear-cut tricks are clarified as tricks expected to make opposite a void in partner’s hand and the second best suit break.


It also gives examples, which include "KQJxxxx = 4 tricks, KQJTxxx = 5 tricks". However, these differ from the same examples in the L&E minutes of February, which give 5 and 6 tricks respectively. Barring a trump promotion, those in the minutes seem to be correct. Is this an error in the OB?

Looks to me as if it must be. I am puzzled about the OB calculation of "clear-cut" tricks here.

KQJTxxx with partner void and the second best suit break should give 6 tricks, not 5, and KQJxxxx should give 5, not 4 tricks?

In each case there are only 6 missing cards and the second best break must be 4-2 so there cannot possibly be more than one loser in the first case (the Ace) and two losers in the second (the Ace and Ten).

Please enlighten me?

regards Sven

PS.: Trump promotion together with a bad break is such a coincidence that I woudn't calculate so pessimistic.
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#6 User is offline   blackshoe 

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Posted 2009-September-11, 15:39

On that first holding, where is the nine?
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#7 User is offline   Blue Uriah 

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Posted 2009-September-12, 04:56

Intriguing. It just occurred to me that I'd completely misread this part of the OB. I thought it said second worst trump break, not second best. If you have an eight card suit opposite a void then the second worst break (4-1) is also the second best, but with seven cards that's not the case.

KQJxxxx. The OB has it as 4 CCT (which must mean a 5-1 break) while the L&E minutes have it as 5 CCT (4-2 break).

KQJTxxx. OB = 5 CCT (5-1 break), minutes = 6 CCT (4-2).

KJTxxx. OB = 1 CCT (6-1 break), minutes = 2 CCT (5-2).

Is it possible that the Orange Book intended 'second-worst' but accidentally wrote 'second-best'?
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#8 User is offline   Trinidad 

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Posted 2009-September-13, 05:00

I am not the author of the OB, but "second best" seems to be a much better definition than "second worst".

"Second worst" would mean that there exists only 1 distribution between the three remaining hands where you don't have the amount of CCTs in hand (e.g. 0-0-6). It would mean that you couldn't evaluate AKQJ987 as 7 CCTs since the suit might split 0-1-5. That seems incredibly rigid to me.

Rik
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#9 User is offline   Blue Uriah 

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Posted 2009-September-13, 06:37

Is it so rigid? By my calculations, AKQJ987 is worth 7 tricks about 98% of the time. And that's not considering the possibility of a trump promotion on some layouts. That maybe crosses the border into "clear cut" territory, but I don't think it's far off. Clear cut means that you will obviously take 7 tricks and it's so unlikely that you will take 6 that it's not worth thinking about. When you start to say instead that it's very probable that you will take 7 tricks, then it's no longer clear cut.
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#10 User is offline   Trinidad 

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Posted 2009-September-13, 08:01

I would say that in the vague and unclear world of bridge 98% is pretty clear cut.

Rik
I want my opponents to leave my table with a smile on their face and without matchpoints on their score card - in that order.
The most exciting phrase to hear in science, the one that heralds the new discoveries, is not “Eureka!” (I found it!), but “That’s funny…” – Isaac Asimov
The only reason God did not put "Thou shalt mind thine own business" in the Ten Commandments was that He thought that it was too obvious to need stating. - Kenberg
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#11 User is offline   campboy 

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Posted 2009-September-13, 08:12

I expect we shall get a definitive answer from bluejak, but here is a link to the L&E minutes for those who want to read it for themselves. All the relevant stuff is on p4.
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#12 User is offline   Grazy69 

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Posted 2009-September-13, 08:18

Blur Uriah
AKQJxxx is 7 tricks 100% as 2nd best is 4-2.

Blackshoe
KQJxxxx
Sure ; if one defender has A9xx then 5 clear tricks ; if defender has 9x then if pd has A8xx then still 5 tricks so more important maybe is "where is the 8 as well" lol ; how far do we go down that road.
Using ncr! formula there is 5 in 30 combinations (20%) of A9xx being in one specific hand.

So back to the original post the hand HAS a clear cut 8 playing tricks so it looks like a TD error

But that is easy if TD didn't have an up-to-date copy of the Orange book-2009 update

The L&E minutes of Feb 2nd 2009 show KQJTxxx as 6 clear cut tricks which is correct. Put it through the small dos program "suitplay" and see.

So campboy ; 8 Clear cut tricks ; TD error

Cheers
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#13 User is offline   campboy 

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Posted 2009-September-13, 08:28

The problem is that the TD did have an up-to-date OB including 2009 updates -- and this specifically says "KQJTxxx is 5 tricks". He showed this to the player at the table when making his ruling.
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#14 User is offline   blackshoe 

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Posted 2009-September-13, 11:56

DOS. <spit>. :)
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As for tv, screw it. You aren't missing anything. -- Ken Berg
Our ultimate goal on defense is to know by trick two or three everyone's hand at the table. -- Mike777
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#15 User is offline   Grazy69 

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Posted 2009-September-14, 03:39

Blackshoe ; Most amusing :)

OK I have "Deep Finesse" and "Jack 4.1" and "GIB" is available on BBO

BUT none of them actually give you a list of the probability %'s

Maybe you really ought to try it and dive back to the "Edison" days before windows.

Its free btw. And if you really don't like DOS I'll bet $200 that you use the "Goulash" DOS program, if you happen to TD on BBO that is.

Back to the plot. The Orange Book looks to be in error as KQJTxxx IS 6 clear cut tricks on any 4-2 split.

Is the TD at fault when the ruling is wrong but has quoted the "correct" info from the trusty? Orange Book ?

Maybe Bluejack can throw light on the discrepancy as the Feb12th 09 L&E minutes describing "Clear tricks" were his thoughts and Bluejack is also the Editor of the Orange Book

Cheers
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#16 User is offline   bluejak 

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  Posted 2009-September-14, 07:36

Subject to final confirmation at the next EBU L&EC meeting, it appears that there was a mistake in the relevant minutes, which was then copied to the online Orange book. Blame can be shared around [since most if not all the members of the L&EC are invited to proofread the minutes] but I feel it was more my fault than anyone's. Very sorry.

The regulation should read "second worst" not "second best".
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#17 User is offline   RMB1 

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Posted 2009-September-14, 09:07

bluejak, on Sep 14 2009, 01:36 PM, said:

The regulation should read "second worst" not "second best".

Doesn't "second worst" mean n cards split (n-1) - 1. Is this really what is meant?

To avoid further confusion could "second worst" be spelt out as "partner holding a void and one opponent holding a singleton".

Robin
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#18 User is offline   bluejak 

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  Posted 2009-September-14, 11:46

RMB1, on Sep 14 2009, 04:07 PM, said:

bluejak, on Sep 14 2009, 01:36 PM, said:

The regulation should read "second worst" not "second best".

Doesn't "second worst" mean n cards split (n-1) - 1. Is this really what is meant?

Yes.

RMB1, on Sep 14 2009, 04:07 PM, said:

To avoid further confusion could "second worst" be spelt out as "partner holding a void and one opponent holding a singleton".

I suppose ....

If I remember I shall tell the L&EC your suggestion. Or you could write to John Pain: because of the mistake in the minutes it has to be revisited next meeting.
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#19 User is offline   blackshoe 

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Posted 2009-September-14, 17:32

I have two computers atm: main one is an iMac. I also have an old beatup Windows XP laptop, which I bought solely to have something to run ACBLScore at games. I could, in fact, run DOS programs on either one (although the laptop only has 256 MB RAM), but that doesn't make the OS any less odious. B)
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#20 User is offline   pgrice 

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Posted 2009-September-15, 10:57

RMB1, on Sep 14 2009, 04:07 PM, said:

bluejak, on Sep 14 2009, 01:36 PM, said:

The regulation should read "second worst" not "second best".

Doesn't "second worst" mean n cards split (n-1) - 1. Is this really what is meant?

To avoid further confusion could "second worst" be spelt out as "partner holding a void and one opponent holding a singleton".

Robin

How about "partner holding a void and one opponent holding a small singleton"

Peter
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