[jdonn]

Scoring: IMP

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1♦ (1♥) 1NT all pass. Went down on 5 rounds of clubs then a diamond switch to the king with 5♦ cold. Have at it.

[Phil]

Sort of unlucky but I think North is wrong not to pull 1N.

Sure likes right to bid 1N with South instead of some diamond raise.

[nige1]

Seems unlucky but reasonable, assuming that 1♦ could be opened with 4432 shape and South could be 3325 or 3316 for his 1N reply..

[Jlall]

Totally normal imo.

[P_Marlowe]

Play against guys, who dont overcall on J10xxx, or was
the suit even worse?

If you gave the South hand, asking what to bid, what
would be the majoriy vote?
And North has no reason to bid on after 1NT.

With kind regards
Marlowe

[gnasher]

It's partly a consequence of playing a 1♦ opening that doesn't promise four cards. If 1♦ was known to be four, responder would raise diamonds (at IMPs).

[jdonn]

gnasher, on Sep 27 2009, 02:57 AM, said:

It's partly a consequence of playing a 1♦ opening that doesn't promise four cards.  If 1♦ was known to be four, responder would raise diamonds (at IMPs).

On that I disagree. (I was south btw.) I would be happy to have it suggested I should raise diamonds, but I don't feel I'm the slightest bit influenced by the possibility partner could be 4432, by habit I just ignore and live with that chance. It's also even less likely than usual here since partner is unlikely to have four hearts given the knowledge of 8+ hearts between myself and my rho (even though he had them this time).

[Jlall]

gnasher, on Sep 27 2009, 02:57 AM, said:

It's partly a consequence of playing a 1♦ opening that doesn't promise four cards. If 1♦ was known to be four, responder would raise diamonds (at IMPs).

I agree with this in general very much (people bid 1N with support too often), but this hand seems like an exception where you should bid 1N even with 4 card support.

However that leads to a disaster on this hand so maybe 2D is right after all. Support with support!

[MattieShoe]

I'd have bid 2♦ over 1NT. I'd be worried partner is short in hearts, and I have only one stopper. Opponents could do damage finessing from both directions. I wonder if he passed 1NT expecting 2♣ from the 1♥ overcaller.

I wrote a little simulator program and entered the constraints with this just to see what it'd say. Assuming I haven't screwed something up...

There's over a 70% chance that south has 5+ clubs, over 30% with 6+, with reasonable odds of having at least one decent club honor.

On the flip side, we're over 70% likely to have an 8 card diamond fit, over 30% for a 9 card diamond fit.

In case anybody is interested, click for a screenshot :-)

[pooltuna]

jdonn, on Sep 26 2009, 09:32 PM, said:

Dealer: North Vul: None Scoring: IMP

♠ QJxx ♥ Kxxx ♦ AQxxx ♣   ♠ Kx ♥ AQ9 ♦ T98x ♣ T987

1♦ (1♥) 1NT all pass. Went down on 5 rounds of clubs then a diamond switch to the king with 5♦ cold. Have at it.

ATB? Only if lady Luck available to accept!! Wouldn't you essentially bid the same with

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[whereagles]

I might pull 1NT to 2♦ to show the 5 card suit. That might help pard in case opps balance.

[nigel_k]

North 100%.

South should usually raise with four but 1NT is OK with better than minimum and a good heart stop.

North should pull to 2♦. It looks wrong to rebid a five card suit but surely it's the percentage action here. Of course partner could be 3325 but much more often he'll have diamond support and there will be a club problem.

I doubt you can reach 5♦ though.

[effervesce]

South's 1NT call is completely normal - most of the hand's values lie in hearts, and certainly 'looks' like a 1NT bid.
Agree north should pull to 2♦ - from experience after pard responds 1NT, and we have a 5 card minor and a void, rebidding the minor is almost always better than playing 1NT.

Almost certainly won't reach 5♦ though - will probably stop in 3♦.