Fluffy, on Sep 1 2009, 08:30 AM, said:
awm, on Aug 31 2009, 09:24 PM, said:
If partner could have a yarborough, then pass is not forcing.
I generally agree with your guidelines, but there is at least one excepction, after opening 2♣.
A lot of people invert the meaning of pass and double in some auctions after interference with a strong club, which is fine. But take some auctions like:
2♣(1) - Pass - 2♥(2) - 3♠
Pass - Pass
(1) Strong
(2) Double negative; denies a king or two queens
Is pass forcing here? It seems likely that responder has absolutely nothing, and that opener has a big balanced hand with 22-24 hcp. There is no particular reason that 3♠ cannot be making, and it is actually quite unlikely that our side can make a game...
2♣(1) - 2♠(2) - X(3) - 3♣(4)
Pass - Pass
(1) Strong
(2) Spades and a minor
(3) Negative; 0-2 hcp
(4) Pass or correct
Again, is pass forcing? I don't really think it should be. This is different from a pass being forcing on the strong hand at a low level, where it's hard to imagine selling to a two-level contract with 22 hcp in any case.
Some other common examples where people disagree with my guidelines:
1♠ - Pass - 1NT - Pass
2♠ - X
Penalty? My rules say no, but old-fashioned standard is penalty and a lot of good players disagree with me here.
1NT(1) - X(2) - 2♦(3) - Pass
Pass - X
(1) 12-14
(2) Cards; 15+ hcp
(3) To play
Was pass forcing? Is X penalty? I would say no to both because advancer could have a yarborough, but many good players disagree.
Anyway, the point is just that a lot of people think these rules sound good on the surface, but once we get to individual auctions they disagree with me pretty frequently.

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