Forcing pass when you know you are not playing thi
#1
Posted 2009-August-15, 08:38
x
Axxx
KQJxx
nobody vul south dealer
1♣-(ps)-1♦-(1♠)
2♦-(2♠)-3♠-(4♠)
---
On this position it is clear for you and probably to partner as well that you are never playing 4 spades doubled, does this modify the meaning of pass, double or 5m?
#2
Posted 2009-August-15, 10:12
#3
Posted 2009-August-15, 10:17
#4
Posted 2009-August-15, 12:52
#5
Posted 2009-August-15, 13:50
3♠ establishes a game force. With no wastage in spades, a side singleton, and good ODR, I think 5♦ is clear.
Winner - BBO Challenge bracket #6 - February, 2017.
#6
Posted 2009-August-15, 13:57
So your point applies if 4D jump raise instead of S Q-bid. Now opener needs MUCH better spades under 1S overcall --that meaning is so rare as to be pointless to reserve X for that. Try 5D raise = no S-control, up to partner; P =S-single; X =SA/void as Rosenkrantz.
#7
Posted 2009-August-15, 15:39
(And of course defending is an option in this sequence. Though naturally not on the actual hand.)
Do not underestimate the power of the dark side. Or the ninth trumph.
Best Regards Ole Berg
_____________________________________
We should always assume 2/1 unless otherwise stated, because:
- If the original poster didn't bother to state his system, that means that he thinks it's obvious what he's playing. The only people who think this are 2/1 players.
Gnasher
#8
Posted 2009-August-15, 15:45
OleBerg, on Aug 15 2009, 04:39 PM, said:
And if partner shows 2? Are you SURE that he's void in spades??
#9
Posted 2009-August-15, 22:12
OleBerg, on Aug 15 2009, 04:39 PM, said:
(And of course defending is an option in this sequence. Though naturally not on the actual hand.)
RKCB really? If partner void or singleton in spades, why did he bid 3S to ask if we can play NT (I assume this is what it meant)? With GF hand and spade singleton he could have bid something more clear like 4S splinter, a new suit, RKC, or something after we have established a fit in diamonds. It sounds like opponents have good spades and are bidding on air, but it is not out of the picture that responder has doubleton spade.
Anyway, I Dbl to say I suggest defending. If that gets overruled, then it probably means we have slam and that the 3S bid did have a singleton spade afterall. Void is quite unlikely in the given auction.
#10
Posted 2009-August-15, 22:22
Partner is more likely to try for 3NT at MPs with spade shortage (singleton) and less likely at IMPs.
I believe that the USA currently hold only the World Championship For People Who Still Bid Like Your Auntie Gladys - dburn
dunno how to play 4 card majors - JLOGIC
True but I know Standard American and what better reason could I have for playing Precision? - Hideous Hog
Bidding is an estimation of probabilities SJ Simon
#11
Posted 2009-August-16, 00:38
louisg, on Aug 15 2009, 11:45 PM, said:
OleBerg, on Aug 15 2009, 04:39 PM, said:
And if partner shows 2? Are you SURE that he's void in spades??
Oops, miscounted (Maybe that's why I don't believe in RKCB, to hard to count those high numbers
Have to contend myself with 5♣.
And no, I am not sure he has single (or void) in spades, but it is very likely. And anytime he has, we have to play some number of diamonds. And if I pass (and respect his double), we will not do that all the time.
Do not underestimate the power of the dark side. Or the ninth trumph.
Best Regards Ole Berg
_____________________________________
We should always assume 2/1 unless otherwise stated, because:
- If the original poster didn't bother to state his system, that means that he thinks it's obvious what he's playing. The only people who think this are 2/1 players.
Gnasher

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