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Let partner out?

#1 User is offline   Jlall 

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Posted 2009-August-10, 17:06

AJT9 x JTx QJTxx

w/w imps you are 2nd seat.

P P 1D 2C
p 2D p 2H
p ?

What do you bid? If you bid 2S partner bids 3C, what do you over that? First time partnership but your partner is known as an aggressive player.
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#2 User is offline   Echognome 

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Posted 2009-August-10, 17:21

I will let my partner out in 4.

I bid 2, then bid 3 over 3. If partner bids anything except 3NT, I bid 4.
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#3 User is offline   shyams 

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Posted 2009-August-10, 18:52

Echognome, on Aug 11 2009, 12:21 AM, said:

I bid 2, then bid 3 over 3. If partner bids anything except 3NT, I bid 4.

Agree with this, except I would drag partner to 5C not 4
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#4 User is offline   Hanoi5 

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Posted 2009-August-10, 19:10

3 after 2-3. If 3 then 4, if 3NT pass.

 wyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:

Also, he rates to not have a heart void when he leads the 3.


 rbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:

Besides playing for fun, most people also like to play bridge to win


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#5 User is offline   WesleyC 

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Posted 2009-August-10, 23:56

I'd start with 2S 3C then 3D and after:

3H 5C - If partner is shapely 5c must have play.
3S 4C - Expecting partner to pass with 2 losing diamonds but to usually bid game with a stiff diamond.
3NT P
4C P
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#6 User is offline   peachy 

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Posted 2009-August-11, 00:16

This is a tough problem. The range of the not-vul overcall in 1D-2C can logically begin lower because it takes away so much room. Then again, they opened in third seat and their responder passed 2C, that responder doesn't hold much.

I plan on passing 3C when he bids it over 2S unless my 2D and 2S bids have created a situation (by agreement or by some expert standard that I don't know about) that I promise to act one more time over 3C, but I don't think such promises can apply for a passed hand. I'm not too confident about my choice but it is a non-vul game, if we miss it I'll have to hope we beat them in other hands ;)
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#7 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2009-August-11, 02:38

the hand doesnt seem to fit very well, I am happy bidding just 3 over 2.
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#8 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2009-August-11, 03:35

I'd bid 2 and see what happens.
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#9 User is offline   ochinko 

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Posted 2009-August-11, 04:46

I don't want partner to get excited too much, so 2 then 5 over 3.
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#10 User is offline   pooltuna 

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Posted 2009-August-11, 08:20

Jlall, on Aug 10 2009, 06:06 PM, said:

AJT9 x JTx QJTxx

w/w imps you are 2nd seat.

P P 1D 2C
p 2D p 2H
p ?

What do you bid? If you bid 2S partner bids 3C, what do you over that? First time partnership but your partner is known as an aggressive player.

yeah I bid 2 and at these colors the rewards are not sufficiently enticing so I pass 3
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#11 User is offline   nick_s 

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Posted 2009-August-11, 08:44

Jlall, on Aug 10 2009, 06:06 PM, said:

AJT9 x JTx QJTxx

w/w imps you are 2nd seat.

P P 1D 2C
p 2D p 2H
p ?

What do you bid? If you bid 2S partner bids 3C, what do you over that? First time partnership but your partner is known as an aggressive player.

I don't think 2 has necessarily promised club support, so it seems wrong to just leave partner in 3 over 2 when we're looking at QJTxx in his suit. 5 could easily be on: give partner the perfecto of: x Axxx xx AKxxxx.

I'm bidding 2 followed by 4 over 3 (and hoping we don't have 3 diamond losers and a major suit loser).
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#12 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2009-August-11, 09:23

Surprised some of the repliers didn't complain about the original pass :rolleyes:

Seriously, though, I will eventually stop torturing partner at 4C.
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#13 User is offline   Jlall 

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Posted 2009-August-11, 09:45

Free, on Aug 11 2009, 04:35 AM, said:

I'd bid 2 and see what happens.

Great post thanks.
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#14 User is offline   cherdanno 

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Posted 2009-August-11, 10:20

2D then 2S then pass 3C. There are many reasonable hands for partner where 9 tricks are the limit - xx KQxx xx AKxxx. I can see making one more try with 4C but forcing to game seems too much to me.

Edit: I forgot to mention the main reason why partner is likely to have 5 clubs only - the opponents are silent with almost 20 hcp, seems unlikely that they both have club shortness. Of course, if your partner would often overcall 1 with 2425 shape and good hearts, then bidding on gets more interesting.
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#15 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2009-August-11, 11:23

Jlall, on Aug 11 2009, 04:45 PM, said:

Free, on Aug 11 2009, 04:35 AM, said:

I'd bid 2 and see what happens.

Great post thanks.

Ok, so partner bids 3 (obviously I didn't read that far JLOLLY - thanks for pointing that out to me)... 3 now
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#16 User is offline   Jlall 

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Posted 2009-August-11, 13:25

I drove to 4C. This seemed right at the time because I was placing partner with 4-6 given my QJT of clubs. I personally can't think of that many hands at all with 4-5 that I would overcall 2C when my clubs are at best AK9xx.

Anyways, as cherdano said partner is very unlikely to have a min 4-6 since the opps quit bidding! Missed this at the table. Oh well. Partner had Qx Kxxx xx AK9xx. 3C was the limit.
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#17 User is offline   nige1 

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Posted 2009-August-11, 16:24

Jlall, on Aug 10 2009, 06:06 PM, said:

w/w imps you are 2nd seat. AJT9 x JTx QJTxx
P P 1D 2C
p 2D p 2H
p ?
What do you bid? If you bid 2S partner bids 3C, what do you over that? First time partnership but your partner is known as an aggressive player.
IMO
  • Over partner's 2, I would have preferred 3 to 2.
  • Now (after partner's 3) I would bid 3 rather than Pass.
That'll teach partner to be more careful about 2-level overcalls :)
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#18 User is offline   ceeb 

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Posted 2009-August-12, 02:34

Cherdano's point about partner not having 6 clubs because of opponents' silence is educational for me, but very subtle in that I would find it hard to estimate how much the slight extra distribution would influence the probability of the opponents finding another bid. Comments?

A more simple-minded reason to suspect partner has only 5 clubs is that the six card suit is 6 times less likely to be dealt (though against that a six card overcall is much more likely to be acceptable without both top honors).
EDIT-- AKxxx is 4 times more frequent than AKxxxx and 2.8 times more frequent than AYxxxx where Y can be either K or x. Allowing for the pro-rate chance to lose a trick to the K when overcaller has Axxxxx, the relevant operational ratio is somewhere in between. Why do I bother with these calculations?
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#19 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2009-August-12, 02:47

Nowadays opps x your suits with a small stiff on almost any excuse (and I agree w them). I think it's a pretty strong argument tbh. Even if responder has shortness and is broke most of the time opener would have had a 1nt opener.
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