[Hanoi5]

1♠ 2♥
3♣ 3♦
4♣ 4NT
5♠ 6♥
???

What is 6♥?

Say you have:


♠Jxxxx
♥Kx
♦x
♣AKQTx

or

♠Jxxxx
♥---
♦JTx
♣AKQTx

What would you bid in each case? What's the meaning of 6♥?

On other note, don't you sometimes feel it'll be great to open black 5-5's with 1♣ (and headed like this...)?

[ONEferBRID]

6H = to play

Some recommend opening 1C with a min/submin 5/5 in the blacks.

[the hog]

6H is to play and it would be impossible to hold either of those opening hands you suggested. They are nt strong enough to bid 3C.

[inquiry]

6♥ is to play

[ONEferBRID]

Re: opening 1C on a min/sub min 5/5 in the blacks.
My "copywrited" ( lol ) system:
If partner has a game going hand, the auction will always go thru 4th Suit GF:

1C - 1 Red
1S - 2 other Red! ( 4SGF )
??
2S = min/submin 5/5
3S-jump = 5/6 hand worthy of a reverse

[peachy]

Neither of the hands you presented is strong enough to bid 3C. But that is all water under the bridge now and does not affect the answer to your question.

6H is to play.

As to opening 1C: Yuck. I know some (even some experts) recommend 1C with 5-5 in blacks. I don't buy it.

[nigel_k]

Hanoi5, on Jul 25 2009, 07:32 PM, said:

What would you bid in each case? What's the meaning of 6♥?

On other note, don't you sometimes feel it'll be great to open black 5-5's with 1♣ (and headed like this...)?

6♥ is to play.

There is debate about 5-5 in the blacks, but opening 1♣ with 4-5 in the blacks is entirely mainstream and that's pretty much what you have here.

[FrancesHinden]

The auction makes no sense at all if 4NT was intended as RkCB in clubs.
If partner was happy to play in 6H opposite a void, why didn't he bid 3H over 3C?

For me, 4NT was natural and regressive.
5S showed a super hand with very good spades.
6H was offering a choice of contracts in the majors, although I still find it implausible given the 3D bid.

[kenrexford]

My suspicion is that 6♥ may actually have a stronger message than "to play." It might even be, "to play, and please pass for God's sake!!!!!"

[ONEferBRID]

This auction is similar to the recent one posted by 123ekim where it went:
1S - 2D
3C - 4NT

Perhaps the above Opener also had a subminimum 5/5 in the blacks also
and not worthy of the 3C rebid..
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
I tend to agree with Frances on the present hand.
4NT was a desperation shot to play in the misfit.
1S - 2H
3C - 3D
4C - 4NT

I believe the 4NT in the former was RKC but not in the latter.
The latter also was NOT Quantitative.
However, Opener took it as RKC for Cl, and Responder "sighed"
and felt 6H was less of a losing proposition than 5S or 6C .

[mcphee]

For the life of me I do not get the 4C bid. Why we would care to pass the level of 3N, complete the showing of our hand? If the 3C bid is not showing any extras in your methods, 3D must be the worlds fair. 4N to me is to play, perhaps partner felt it was key card for !C who knows. I can not bring myself to pass 6H, and venture 6N.

[benlessard]

With a club fit responder will prefer to raise to 4C or to keycard directly than to bid 3D. With solid H he will bid 3H (unless you allow adv cue-bid). Also opener should rebid 3H (over 3D) with any hands holding 2H.

1S---2H
3C

My style is ..
opener want to keyc in H
3H followed by 4Nt is H keycard no matter what responder bid.

Keyc in C
4C followed by 4Nt
or 4C is RKC for clubs

Keyc is S
3S ...etc

with a quant i just bid 4Nt directly. Some will say that a direct Quantitative is rare and i agree its just that if you dont use a direct quant a later 4Nt bid will be unclear.

For me 6H doesnt make sense unless my agreement are crystal clear. Either responder cannot have solid H or he can.

PS 5NT pick-a-slam is a very underated and easy to use slam tool. that solve all kind of dumb problems.

[P_Marlowe]

6H is to play, hence Pass.

No need to look at the hands.

With kind regards
Marlowe