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Forcing or not? ACBL 2/1

#1 User is offline   dickiegera 

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Posted 2009-August-09, 15:07

Bidding with no interfernce.

[1CL] [1SP]
[2DI] [3CL]

Is 3CL forcing. Should we play that 2DI is game forcing ? of only forcing one round?

HELP and comments please
THANK YOU

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#2 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2009-August-09, 15:09

Standard is forcing.

After a reverse it is common to play something like a 2NT Lebensohl bid
to differentiate between forcing / Non forcing.
The weak / nonforcing seq. to bid clubs would be via 2NT.

Playing 2D as GF is possible but non standard.

Have a look at
http://forums.bridge...showtopic=18177

I am not a fan of the NA way of playing reverses, but the above is a
good read.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#3 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2009-August-09, 15:09

It depends on your agreements. Some play 3 forcing, with either 2 or 2N to initiate a sign off, and some play it as NF (with 2 as the force).

Nevertheless, I would bid 2 with five good spades which is forcing in any system.
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#4 User is offline   dicklont 

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Posted 2009-August-09, 15:11

The 2 reverse is strong, but not gameforcing.

I play 3 forcing, or any other immediate call higher than 2NT.
To show a really bad hand with some clubs we use 2NT, this is called Lebensohl or Ingberman.
Opener "must" answer 3 after 2NT, but when he doesn´t his hand is very strong and the auction is gameforcing.
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#5 User is offline   ONEferBRID 

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Posted 2009-August-09, 16:21

Phil touched on it.
I've been told that most experts play 2oM ( 2H! here ) as Lebensohl whenever the "special case" of the 2D reverse is made ( obviously 1C open and 2D reverse always ).
Thus, any other bid is forwardgoing..... even the 2M rebid ( 2S in this case) which would show a 5+ card suit .

1C - 1S
2D - 2S ( forcing )
2NT - 3NT
Don Stenmark ( TWOferBRIDGE )
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#6 User is offline   mtvesuvius 

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Posted 2009-August-09, 16:39

Forcing for sure... Either 2H or 2NT are methods to sign off, depending on agreements.
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#7 User is offline   nigel_k 

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Posted 2009-August-09, 18:52

As usual with these, there are two different questions: what is the best approach and what does/should it mean if undiscussed?

I think the consensus expert approach is that a weak responder either rebids their suit or bids the cheaper of 2NT and the fourth suit. After that, opener must bid again but responder may pass opener's next bid. If responder does anything else it's a game force.

Maybe I am old-fashioned but undiscussed I wouldn't feel confident that 3 is forcing and would do something else with the given hand.
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#8 User is offline   peachy 

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Posted 2009-August-10, 10:49

2D is what is called Reverse, in standard bidding. It shows a medium-range hand (about 17) and is a one-round force. You need to agree on a method to show weak hands after opener reverses.

Without agreements, the standard is to play that 3C is forcing, at least in the area where I play (Western US)
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#9 User is offline   Gerben42 

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Posted 2009-August-10, 13:53

Standard seems to be nonforcing, just taking preference. Why not bid the 4th suit with a strong hand?

If you play the 2NT gadget, then 3 is forcing, of course. But needs to be agreed.
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