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I passed

#21 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2009-July-13, 15:25

I still hate pass despite the result but can you explain the reasoning? Incidentally I knew you were serious not trolling.
Please let me know about any questions or interest or bug reports about GIB.
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#22 User is offline   ArtK78 

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Posted 2009-July-13, 15:31

I would be interested in the resoning. My first reaction is that you got lucky to find your partner with the ideal hand for a pass of 1x by you.
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#23 User is offline   MFA 

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Posted 2009-July-13, 16:38

Jlall, on Jul 13 2009, 04:19 PM, said:

MFA, on Jul 13 2009, 03:25 PM, said:

lol, don't feed the troll.

? This is a real hand and I passed. Maybe you think this is a horrible bid, as I expected most would. I have talked to at least one regular forum poster and convinced him that how I thought about this hand was good, and that passing was indeed right (he also thought I was insane to begin with.) I posted this hand so that maybe you could try to think outside the box. I know you are also a very good player, but it doesn't mean I'm trolling for posting a hand you don't understand.

Results: +1100. Partner had a balanced 21. Is this really that unexpected except for how large the plus was?

Good if you were serious, since it's nicer this way.

Sorry for being rude, but at least it communicated my view. Passing is crazy. Fancy play syndrome. I'll stay inside the box on this one. ;)
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#24 User is offline   dake50 

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Posted 2009-July-13, 22:05

Even a 6th D and 3cM I waver. Can partner produce 4DT +my 3 trump tricks? That's for -1. Out the pan into the fire for me.
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#25 User is offline   xcurt 

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Posted 2009-July-13, 22:29

I understand your action, since the IMP table seems to be in your favor, but who were your opponents? I can understand pass winning if they don't know the IMP odds say to run away from 1mx if unsure on this and related auctions. If they are smart enough to bid out with, eg, 3415 4-counts as responder, or to redouble or bid out as opener without a playing hand for diamonds, then the odds of this scenario drop precipitously and you're left with just the loss hands.

If partner really had 21 balanced, and opener had a weak NT, then responder probably had 5-7 with diamond shortness, and he really should have bid.
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#26 User is offline   ArtK78 

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Posted 2009-July-13, 22:33

dake50, on Jul 13 2009, 11:05 PM, said:

Even a 6th D and 3cM I waver. Can partner produce 4DT +my 3 trump tricks? That's for -1. Out the pan into the fire for me.

Well, at IMPs I would pass 1x with 6 diamonds. Even if they make it the score is only 140. Overtricks are unlikely when I hold 6 diamonds, and I don't like my alternate actions.

Matchpoints is a bigger problem, since -140 is likely to be very bad.
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#27 User is offline   marcD 

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Posted 2009-July-14, 02:17

Interesting post . Only a beginner or someone looking to win a brilliancy prize would pass with this hand. I can see the logic but it all rests on responder not passing with an average/good balanced hand . I think it was Ed Manfield who wrote an article advocating passing with good hand lacking clear direction in BW a few years ago.
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#28 User is offline   Apollo81 

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Posted 2009-July-14, 11:51

Partner could just as easily have had a void or small singleton diamond.
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#29 User is offline   petergreat 

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Posted 2009-July-16, 05:45

1000% 1.
You never pass a 1-level takeout double without something like 3.5 trump tricks. You have 1 at most, so it would be quite mad.
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#30 User is offline   Hanoi5 

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Posted 2009-July-16, 05:49

I believe this is a beginner's pass.

View Postwyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:

Also, he rates to not have a heart void when he leads the 3.


View Postrbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:

Besides playing for fun, most people also like to play bridge to win


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#31 User is offline   benlessard 

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Posted 2009-July-16, 10:47

few RHO will pass 1Dx with short diamonds and 5+ pts.

So therefore opener is likely to have a balanced 18-19 pts and partner got a pretty big hand over him,

2- or that opener has an unbalanced hand and partner got a monster

3- or that opener got a big unbalanced hands.

in the 1st 2 case passing make sense in the 1st 1DX is a fair shot while in the 2nd if you bid 1S partner will jump to an unmakable game or to 3S/2Nt.

In the 3rd youll give away some overtricks.

I would bid 1S but understad why passing might work.

Also its easier to pass if opps play weak nt here... (so that the 1D opening can even be 15-17 bal)
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#32 User is offline   jjbrr 

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Posted 2009-July-16, 11:27

opener had a normal 13 count
OK
bed
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#33 User is offline   xcurt 

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Posted 2009-July-16, 17:39

Both opponents should have bid out, but it's harder for opener on the actual hand, since he needs redouble to be a running noise instead of "let's punish the opponents."

1NT by the opponents would have made or been down 1 in practice.
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#34 User is offline   cherdanno 

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Posted 2009-July-16, 21:58

jjbrr, on Jul 16 2009, 12:27 PM, said:

opener had a normal 13 count

but he didnt have a pass
"Are you saying that LTC merits a more respectful dismissal?"
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#35 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2009-July-17, 01:27

xcurt, on Jul 17 2009, 12:39 AM, said:

Both opponents should have bid out, but it's harder for opener on the actual hand, since he needs redouble to be a running noise instead of "let's punish the opponents."

Why's that hard? I thought the whole world played redouble by opener as SOS.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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