Scoring: IMP
I was sitting South. The bid went: E=pass / S=1NT / W=2♠ / N=2NT / E= 3♠ / S= 3NT / W=pass / N=4♥ / pass pass pass.
I bid 3NT because I thought my partner had a stop in spades, no 4-card majors and probably stops elsewhere.
We had no particular agreements.
My partner objected, saying that 2NT was an interrogative about minors, and that it is a very usual bid.
My questions:
1) Is that so?
2) Even if it is so, wasn't it better for north to bid 3♥ after West's 2♠?

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