[kfay]

2♣-2♥*
2N-3♦^
3♠#-4♣
6♥

---

2♥= 1 Ace or 2 Kings
2N = unlimited balanced
3♦= ♥s
3♠ = superaccept. 4♥s, spade strength

It goes down, even after ♣K lead. Matchpoints.

[karlson]

Great hand for the methods and both failed to take advantage.

South has basically shown his hand on the auction already after 3d, and with a stiff opposite partner's concentration, 4c looks like an overbid. Given the spade values, partner really needs a perfecto, something like AQxx AKQx AKx KQ, and he might not have chosen to show the concentration on that hand even.

North on the other hand should know that partner doesn't have ♠A and ♣K, so he 100% needs stiff club for slam. WIth an ace opposite partner's second suit and a side stiff, he will be able to afford another move after 4♦. If north doesn't think that's true, then at least 5♦ over the 4♥ signoff will get the message across for sure.

Edit: Sorry, I just saw that 2n was unlimited. I guess that excuses south a little bit, but there should really be an agreement on what range the superaccept shows.

[vuroth]

If you want my B/I opinion, south. south already showed the ace with 2♥. After 3♠, I think south needs to limit his hand with 4♥. 3♣ should promise SOMETHING more than he's already shown, and all he really needs is the AQ of clubs to make the slam a decent one. (EDIT: Admittedly, xxx xxxxx xxx AQ kind of sucks...)

[kgr]

North.
South showed ♣A and no K and not ♠A.

[Codo]

North
south showed 5 hearts and one ace, no kings. How will you ever make slam when south has no side singelton?

[hotShot]

If North would count the keycards, he'd realize that 2 are missing.
So even if 4♣ would be promising extra values in ♣ (which seems not to be the case) a slam would have at most 50% on the ♣ finesse.

[kfay]

hotShot, on Apr 24 2009, 03:52 AM, said:

If North would count the keycards, he'd realize that 2 are missing.
So even if 4♣ would be promising extra values in ♣ (which seems not to be the case) a slam would have at most 50% on the ♣ finesse.

Well this is the question. Should South cue when he's basically already shown his hand? (an A or 2 Ks and 5 hearts)

[hotShot]

kfay, on Apr 24 2009, 01:15 PM, said:

Well this is the question.  Should South cue when he's basically already shown his hand?  (an A or 2 Ks and 5 hearts)

I think your agreement over 2♣ is (very) good, but you used a lot of bidding space.
So there is a need to make the best use of the remaining bidding space.
Both South and North have to use every available bid to describe their shape.

North has shown an unlimited balanced hand with good ♥ support.
3♠ is a forcing bid. South has no information about the number of available keycards and North strength, so he is in no position to to make decisions. He describes his hand so that North can make the right decision.

[Hanoi5]

I blame what I don't understand:

Quote

2N = unlimited balanced

[kfay]

Hanoi5, on Apr 24 2009, 08:05 AM, said:

I blame what I don't understand:

Quote

2N = unlimited balanced

Well we can show several different types of balanced hands depending on if partner gives his worst response (2♦). A 2♣ opener contains a lot of ranges for most players since their 2NT opener is only 20-21. What do you do if you have a 27 HCP balanced hand?

Since everything above 2♦ gives a much greater chance that the hand belongs in slam why should you preempt yourself by bidding 2NT, 3NT, 4NT etc. with different ranges? You could probably come up with a relay to solve this problem by 3NT but, well, we have not. So we just start by showing our shape (balanced), which could be 22 HCP or could be 28 HCP.

[P_Marlowe]

Hi,

I think South should bid 4H, because of his singleton.

6H is also ..., assuming 4C showed the Ace of clubs, the Ace
of spade and the king of clubs are missing, means, the slam
is at best at 50% after a club lead, you may or may not get
it after the club cue, but this is another issue.

With kind regards
Marlowe

[bid_em_up]

kfay, on Apr 23 2009, 03:09 PM, said:

2♥= 1 Ace or 2 Kings

North 100%.

He knows he has a first round spade loser AND probably a second round club loser as well.

(South cannot hold two kings, so 4C must be the A)

kfay, on Apr 24 2009, 07:15 AM, said:

Well this is the question.  Should South cue when he's basically already shown his hand?  (an A or 2 Ks and 5 hearts)

Why wouldn't he show where his control is located?

[Apollo81]

North 100%. If South has ♣AK he will always bid the slam after a superaccept, so North should cue 4♦ and pass a 4♥ bid.

[cherdanno]

I disagree with the consensus here, I blame South.
South had already shown an ace, now he finds out about strength opposite his singleton AND he has bad trumps + no other honors, he should make the most discouraging bid. When both players are still unlimited, it is important to limit your hand at some point.
North was assuming that South is showing extras with 4♣. That could be a club singleton (score!), or ♣AQ, so slam will never be really bad (I don't think xxx xxxxx xxx AQ is a 4♣ bid either), and it's even right-sided. With s.th. like JTxx Jxxxx xx AQ, or Jxx Jxxxx xxx AQ, I don't think South would make another move.

[hanp]

Agree with cherdanno and I thought it was obvious.

[Phil]

hanp, on Apr 24 2009, 02:11 PM, said:

Agree with cherdanno and I thought it was obvious.

Yep. South would bid this way with Axx Jxxxx xxxx x.

[Fasteddy]

One thing overlooked in the discussion so far is that if North held four diamonds, 6♦ would be a very good contract even if North held no other HCP. Give North x xxxxx xxxx Axx and there are 12 tricks if diamonds are 3-2 and hearts not 4-0 (South's club loser goes on the fifth heart).

How would one reach 6♦ if North held that hand? Maybe opener's new-suit super-acceptance should always promise a 4-card suit, with 3NT showing 4333 and 4M 5332. With this hand, opener would bid 4♦ over 3♦, and responder could judge to sign off with no extra values and no help in partner's suit. Give him a 4th diamond, though, and he's worth another call.

[Codo]

Phil, on Apr 25 2009, 06:18 AM, said:

hanp, on Apr 24 2009, 02:11 PM, said:

Agree with cherdanno and I thought it was obvious.

Yep. South would bid this way with Axx Jxxxx xxxx x.

With that hand south would bid 3 NT, wouldn't he?

He had shown his controls his 5 hearts, so when he has a side singelton he should show a real good hand with serious 3 NT.

And besides this, how likely is a badly needed singelton in a side suit when you look on a shortage yourself?