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5=2=6=0 1NT-P-2S transfer to you
#1
Posted 2009-April-24, 18:15
1NT - (pass) - 2♠ (transfer to clubs) to you. What agreements do you have to show two-suiters here?
#2
Posted 2009-April-24, 19:19
Would think double is cards and 2N is diamonds and a major. 3♣ would be the majors.
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Winner - BBO Challenge bracket #6 - February, 2017.
Winner - BBO Challenge bracket #6 - February, 2017.
#3
Posted 2009-April-24, 19:35
With not many points and big shape I tend to shape out and expect the auction to stay alive. If the auction goes 3♦ float, I say 'sorry pard' and we play another hand after that.
"Maybe we should all get together and buy Kaitlyn a box set of "All in the Family" for Chanukah. Archie didn't think he was a racist, the problem was with all the chinks, dagos, niggers, kikes, etc. ruining the country." ~ barmar
#5
Posted 2009-April-25, 04:47
3♣ majors, wich leaves 2NT for diamonds and another. Double would show spades.
If not sure you can always double planing to bid diamond slater.
If not sure you can always double planing to bid diamond slater.
#6
Posted 2009-April-25, 08:56
Start X of 2S --at least get lead direct in. Easy 3D>3C --now both suits suggested. Higher tough decision. 6-5 come alive.
#7
Posted 2009-April-25, 09:12
Against a weak no-trump, it's normal to use double of a red-suit transfer as showing values. I can't think of any reason why this would be different over 1N:2S (1NT:2NT is a different matter as they are more likely to be able to make 2NT than to make 2S - now double should probably be takeout of their suit).
I was fairly sure that 3♣ would be for the majors. 2NT as ♦+M makes sense, but I was worried that would show the two lowest. In that case, 4♣ should be ♠+♦, but I wasn't trying that undiscussed either!
So, it seemed to come down to 3♦ or 3♠.
I bid 3♠ on the grounds that we are more likely to have game in the major, and if they compete in clubs it gives me the option to bid both my suits without pushing a level higher if partner prefers diamonds.
Reasonable? Feel free to post just to say that you wish to abstain from the second part!
The auction now proceeds
(pass)-4♠-(5♣)
and it's over to you again...
I was fairly sure that 3♣ would be for the majors. 2NT as ♦+M makes sense, but I was worried that would show the two lowest. In that case, 4♣ should be ♠+♦, but I wasn't trying that undiscussed either!
So, it seemed to come down to 3♦ or 3♠.
I bid 3♠ on the grounds that we are more likely to have game in the major, and if they compete in clubs it gives me the option to bid both my suits without pushing a level higher if partner prefers diamonds.
Reasonable? Feel free to post just to say that you wish to abstain from the second part!
The auction now proceeds
(pass)-4♠-(5♣)
and it's over to you again...
#8
Posted 2009-April-25, 13:09
I'm with Dake50, X to show spades then bid diamonds - simple is easiest
#9
Posted 2009-April-25, 15:16
I like the x to show spades and then showing diamonds if need be. 3♦ is my next choice, in case x doesn't show spades.
wyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:
Also, he rates to not have a heart void when he leads the ♥3.
rbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:
Besides playing for fun, most people also like to play bridge to win
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#10
Posted 2009-April-25, 16:52
I play the same as I would over a 1♣ opening, which is 3♣ = majors and 2NT = ♠ + ♦.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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Help

1NT is 12-14. Assuming you haven't discussed this auction, so trying to show both suits in one go is unlikely to be successful, what call do you make?