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Lebensohl after a weak 2 diamonds Is this auction defined?

#1 User is offline   CSGibson 

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Posted 2009-April-19, 14:02

I was thinking about lebensohl after a weak 2 in diamonds, and I was wondering specifically about this auction:

(2)-X-(P)-2N*,
(P)-3*-(P)-3.

Intuitively, I think the auction should be 9-11 HCP with two four card majors, asking doubler to pick the level and suit, but I honestly haven't seen the auction in any textbooks, and, to my knowledge, have never seen the auction at the table, either.
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#2 User is offline   rogerclee 

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Posted 2009-April-19, 16:00

I think should should be a general force (you should at least have one way to show a general game force).

Maybe this is offtopic, I'd recommend lebensohl off over 2.
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#3 User is offline   CSGibson 

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Posted 2009-April-19, 23:33

rogerclee, on Apr 19 2009, 03:00 PM, said:

I think should should be a general force (you should at least have one way to show a general game force).

Maybe this is offtopic, I'd recommend lebensohl off over 2.

And how would the general force be different than an immediate 3 call? Note: I do not disagree with 3 being forcing, as it would be silly to play it non-forcing. I am just wondering what the difference should be for an immediate 3 vs a 3 through lebensohl.

I thought that the hand I gave, with two four card majors and 9-11 HCP, would be a good hand to assign to that sequence, since a takeout double over 2 will often have 4-3 in the majors, or sometimes 5-3, and this way you can be sure of playing in the 4-4 fit instead of the 4-3, and at the appropriate level, but I want to make sure there isn't something else even more useful.

As for lebensohl off, that does make some sense, though I find it very useful to differentiate between invitational hands with 4 card and 5 card majors (same reason, often 4-3 in majors), which lebensohl allows me to do.
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#4 User is offline   nick_s 

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Posted 2009-April-20, 08:13

I haven't discussed this with pard, but I would assume that the two sequences were the same as for Lebensohl over intervention over 1NT.

i.e. Staymanesque with a diamond stop vs Staymanesque without a diamond stop.

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#5 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2009-April-20, 08:26

CSGibson, on Apr 20 2009, 06:33 AM, said:

And how would the general force be different than an immediate 3 call?

Immediate 3 denies a diamond stopper so partner bid 4 with 3325 and small diamonds. 3 via 2NT shows a diamond stopper.

I think.
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