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Is it a splinter? or asking a stop

#1 User is offline   dicklont 

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Posted 2009-April-14, 17:01

Some discussion at the bridgeclub tonight.
You hold: Kxx KQJ x AJ10xxx.
Playing 2/1 partner opens 1, overcall 1
Now you can bid 2 to show club fit with limit+.

The question is wheather 3 is asking partner bid 3NT with a stop and 4 is a splinter.
Or is 3 the splinter bid.
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#2 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2009-April-14, 17:10

Depends on your agreement, 3 is a transfer to 3N I think for modern players and is a splinter for us old fogies like me and Adam's dad.
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#3 User is offline   mtvesuvius 

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Posted 2009-April-14, 17:16

Phil, on Apr 14 2009, 06:10 PM, said:

Depends on your agreement, 3 is a transfer to 3N I think for modern players and is a splinter for us old fogies like me and Adam's dad.

My dad doesn't even play 4 way transfers!!!!!!!

Well, I use 3 with most people as a transfer to 3NT.
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#4 User is offline   kenrexford 

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Posted 2009-April-14, 17:20

I must really be a fart, as 3 seems obviously to be a splinter. I don't even understand the transfer to 3NT concept. I mean, if it is an asking bid, asking partner to bid 3NT if he has some reason, then OK. But, what holding could I have where I want to insist that the diamond lead goes through me?
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#5 User is offline   rbforster 

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Posted 2009-April-14, 18:02

I'm with Ken on this one, treating 3 as a splinter. I'd bid 2 limit+, expecting it to act like a "transfer to NT" when partner has a balanced hand and a diamond stop. If he bids a major, we can always re-cue 3 to get the message across.
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#6 User is offline   hanp 

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Posted 2009-April-14, 18:19

I play it is a splinter.
and the result can be plotted on a graph.
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#7 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2009-April-14, 18:43

I know Fred strongly advocates having some bid transfer to notrump. Partly that you can get something like Qx or Qxx or various other holdings to declare, and partly that the overcaller may have a broken suit he is worried about leading. Personally I have never played it and never particularly thought I needed it. Usually you can cuebid twice or bid a suit then cuebid and coerce partner into eventually bidding notrump, and the splinter is useful.

The best "result" I ever saw from that treatment was I overcalled on JT98x, LHO used his transfer-to-3NT bid, and I led my suit. Dummy had Axx and it went low low queen. It turned out declarer had KQx but was messing with dummy, since he was the one who loved the convention.
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#8 User is offline   kfay 

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Posted 2009-April-14, 18:52

Personally, I only play 1m-(1M)-3M as a transfer to 3N.

This makes sense to me. But I can't pretend I think about these vogue conventions from every angle.
Kevin Fay
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#9 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2009-April-15, 01:24

It makes more sense to use 3 as a splinter and 3 as a transfer to 3NT. Whatever you currently use 3 for, I can't believe it's more useful than a 3 splinter.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#10 User is offline   y66 

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Posted 2009-April-15, 02:33

In BWS 2001, after they overcall our 1M opening, a jump cue-bid is a splinter.
If you lose all hope, you can always find it again -- Richard Ford in The Sportswriter
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#11 User is online   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2009-April-15, 02:41

For me 3D is a splinter, may mean I am also old school.

If you are interested in a stopper you go slower, either
via a neg. X followed by the cue, or by bidding a new suit,
or making the limit raise.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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