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Deviations Is the lead obvious?

#1 User is offline   vuroth 

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Posted 2009-April-06, 19:27

Opponents bid:
1♥ 1NT(1)
2♦ (2) 3NT
ap

1 - forcing
2 - better minor, 10-13

What should I lead from:

♠QJ3
♥T52
♦986
♣9632

What inferences should I be making from the bidding?

EDIT: ACBL tournament, SAYC assumed
Still decidedly intermediate - don't take my guesses as authoritative.

"gwnn" said:

rule number 1 in efficient forum reading:
hanp does not always mean literally what he writes.
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#2 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2009-April-06, 19:43

RHO should have some sort of fitting hand, hoping for running diamonds.

I'd lead the ♠Q, LHO did not promise anything in spades yet and RHO positively denied 4.
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#3 User is offline   655321 

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Posted 2009-April-06, 19:47

I would just lead the ♠Q without thinking too hard.

The auction seems odd, not sure what to infer from it but I don't think it matters too much.

The only factor suggesting a club lead instead of a spade is that partner presumably has values, and could have overcalled 1♠ but didn't. For that reason a club lead is reasonable too - partner couldn't overcall 1♣. But I am still leading from my QJx suit instead of my 9xxx suit.
That's impossible. No one can give more than one hundred percent. By definition that is the most anyone can give.
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#4 User is offline   mtvesuvius 

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Posted 2009-April-06, 19:59

Q♠, both players are somewhat denying 4♠, so partner is marked with 4 of them.
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#5 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2009-April-07, 03:52

Our heart holding says hearts might very well set up, so an aggressive lead is in order.

Since a club rates to go no-where unless pard has 5 of them (not likely), a spade is what's left. ♠Q thus.
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#6 User is offline   mich-b 

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Posted 2009-April-07, 04:13

An important clue to remember is that partner will not have 5 Spades (and a reasonable hand) , because he would have overcalled, but he could have a 5 card ♣ suit, if his hand was not good enough for a 2 level overcall.
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#7 User is offline   vuroth 

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Posted 2009-April-07, 04:35

Thanks guys.

Both opponents self rated advanced, fwiw. Dummy had 4 hearts, declarer had 4 spades. Q♠ lead led to 3NT=, and a 0 for us.

It seemed like the standard lead 4th best club) might have worked, so I wondered if my deviation was sane or insane, especially in the aftermath when I didn't understand the bidding at all.

V
Still decidedly intermediate - don't take my guesses as authoritative.

"gwnn" said:

rule number 1 in efficient forum reading:
hanp does not always mean literally what he writes.
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#8 User is offline   655321 

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Posted 2009-April-07, 05:58

I disagree that a club is the 'standard' lead on the hand, although as I mentioned in my previous post it is a reasonable lead.

It turns out that the opening lead was not relevant. I looked up the hand:
http://online.bridgebase.com/myhands/fetch...ayed=1239062460

Double dummy, 3NT can always be made on any lead, and nobody else in the field bid it.
(Declarer can go down if he plays East for a heart honor and the defense switches to spades in time.)

Don't know what system the opponents were playing, but it wasn't SAYC. The 1♥ opening was made with a 3442 10 count, and responder bid 1NT on a 4243 14 count.

As the play actually went, it was clear for your partner to play a club when he won his heart, either immediately, or after cashing the ♠K. That would have beaten 3NT by at least one trick, possibly two.
That's impossible. No one can give more than one hundred percent. By definition that is the most anyone can give.
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#9 User is offline   vuroth 

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Posted 2009-April-07, 06:09

Well whether or not it's standard, 4th from longest is the "beginner" lead.
Still decidedly intermediate - don't take my guesses as authoritative.

"gwnn" said:

rule number 1 in efficient forum reading:
hanp does not always mean literally what he writes.
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