1S-X-Pass-1NT? How do you play it?
#1
Posted 2009-March-05, 04:10
Let's assume the double complies with the 3 normal requirements for doubles:
- Very few cards in their suit(s).
- (near) Opening-bid strength in HCP.
- At least 3 cards in the unbid suits, usually 4 in unbid Major(s).
Therefore there should be a tendency by advancer (doubler's partner) to bid unbid suits and bidding NT should be serious. So, in the sequence shown:
1S - X - Pass - 1NT
Where 1S is any suit, what does 1NT show? And why?
wyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:
rbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:
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#2
Posted 2009-March-05, 06:34
It may be semibalanced, f.e with length in their suit but with no desire for a penalty pass.
Roland
Sanity Check: Failure (Fluffy)
More system is not the answer...
#3
Posted 2009-March-05, 06:38
#4
Posted 2009-March-05, 09:23
#5
Posted 2009-March-05, 09:32
#6
Posted 2009-March-05, 10:38
Roland
#7
Posted 2009-March-05, 11:36
#8
Posted 2009-March-05, 12:13
One point I like to clarify with all partners is what doubler's 2minor should mean. To me, it should be a weak runout... and advancer may pull 2♣ to 2♦... hands that are 'double and bid suit to show strength', the classical meaning of the sequence, should almost invariably bid 3N or, if too strong or otherwise inappropriate, cue 2♠ to establish the gf.
#9
Posted 2009-March-05, 12:30
mikeh, on Mar 5 2009, 01:13 PM, said:
One point I like to clarify with all partners is what doubler's 2minor should mean. To me, it should be a weak runout... and advancer may pull 2♣ to 2♦... hands that are 'double and bid suit to show strength', the classical meaning of the sequence, should almost invariably bid 3N or, if too strong or otherwise inappropriate, cue 2♠ to establish the gf.
The weak run-out interpretation makes sense to me but everyone tells me I'm crazy. Maybe they are just making a general assessment of my mental state unrelated to this issue.
Perhaps the weak runout interpretation is tied to the restricted range. If the 1NT shows something like 8-10 and presumably at least somewhat flat, it would seem doubler has enough information to make a reasonable estimate of where the hand should be played.
At the other extreme from 8-10, Mike Lawrence (Complete Book of Take-Out Doubles) provides the hand:
874
Q74
QJ5
J873
Over 1D-X-Pass he suggests 1NT rather than 2C. I suppose part of the logic is that since opener has to be prepared for both majors it ups the chances of him having something like Qxx in clubs.
I guess I expect a hand that can reasonably play in 1NT, presumably ruling out a 6 count but I agree that bidding 2C with the above is highly unattractive.
#10
Posted 2009-March-05, 12:31
mikeh, on Mar 5 2009, 11:13 AM, said:
One point I like to clarify with all partners is what doubler's 2minor should mean. To me, it should be a weak runout... and advancer may pull 2♣ to 2♦... hands that are 'double and bid suit to show strength', the classical meaning of the sequence, should almost invariably bid 3N or, if too strong or otherwise inappropriate, cue 2♠ to establish the gf.
Agree with this, though I play 2m is a natural signoff. I am not sure what you mean by "partner can pull 2♣ to 2♦"; of course he can do this, but he should be aware that we can easily be 2425.

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