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Forcing pass?

#21 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2009-March-02, 23:21

hanp, on Mar 2 2009, 01:38 PM, said:

Apologies for the misleading title. What would your call be in this situation:

Scoring: IMP


(1C) - p - (1D) - Dbl
(p) - 1H - (p) - ??

I did not read any posts....nonxeprt bid 2c'''

ok I will read posts to see what is correct ....
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#22 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2009-March-03, 02:14

If the 2245 hand could bid a natural 2, maybe it's not such a horrible problem. Is that a normal agreement?

I don't think the doubler should worry much about the possibility that 1 is a 3-card suit. I don't think it's particularly likely: most responders would have bid a major instead of 1 if they had one, and most openers would have bid a major over the double if they had one, so the partner's expected length in the majors is high. Using a cue-bid to show a good raise makes sense, though.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#23 User is offline   y66 

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Posted 2009-March-03, 08:48

Don't know if bidding 2C as natural is normal, but Mike Lawrence suggests doing so in his book on takeout doubles (p48). Advancer can bid the higher ranking suit if he wants to make a forcing cue bid.
If you lose all hope, you can always find it again -- Richard Ford in The Sportswriter
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#24 User is offline   mcphee 

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Posted 2009-March-03, 09:27

On this particular auction I also think 2C should be natural. It only makes sense when 2D available.

If my partner bid 1H in response I do not expect them to choose a 2 card suit. This is not an unusual nt or michaels t/o dble. I doubt partner is even 5-4 majors as they would far more likely o/c the 5 bagger. Passing the dble is also not the end of the world, it's not game, on a good day we might hold it to one, and when it's the day the sun shines on you it goes down :)
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#25 User is offline   oldman5757 

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Posted 2009-March-03, 10:06

stretch to invite at IMPs. 3
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