[Cascade]

1♣ 1♥
1♠ 1NT
2♠

What is the range for 2♠?

Is it forcing?

Is there ever a hand where you can't bid 2♠ and have to bid 2♣ because you are too weak?

If it matters we play

1♣ 1♥
2♠

As game forcing so 1♠ was limited.

If you play this style do you utilize the auction

1♣ 1♥
1♠ 1NT
3♠ ?

Perhaps this should be NF Invite.

[mike777]

nonexpert answer....



2s is one round forcing over 1nt but not 100% game forcing.

Granted this seems 95% game forcing.

any responder response other than 2nt or 3c is 100% game forcing.


Yes, yes that means:
1c=1h
1s=1nt
2s=3s

Partner can never ...never pass.

[gnasher]

1♠ denied the values to insist on game opposite a 1♥ response. 1NT didn't promise either more strength or a better fit than responder had already shown. Therefore opener still can't have the values to insist on game, and 2♠ is non-forcing.

Looking at it another way, 1NT might have been bid on a 2551 shape. Even with three-card support, 3♠ might be dangerously high. Responder should be allowed to pass.

I'd bid 2♣ on something like Kxxxx x x AQJ10xx, where game seems impossible and 2♣ seems as good a partscore as any. If we bid 2♠ on this sort of hand, we may have to play 3♣ opposite 2-2 in the blacks.

2♠ might be bid on a minimum where spades are likely to play better than clubs opposite 3-1 or 2-1, eg KQJxx x x Axxxxx. It could also be stronger, up to a maximum invitation. I can't picture a hand where I'd want to bid 1♣-1♥; 1♠-1NT; 3♠ - I'd rather stretch to a game-force on the previous round.

Playing 1♠ as forcing and 1♣-1♥-2♠ as something artificial, I'd use the delayed jump to show a game-forcing 5-6.

[mike777]

I find it difficult to think responder made a free bid of 1nt over a nonforcing 1s and now when opener rebids 2s we can pass.

that means responder has made two free bids(nonforced bids) over opener's bids.



1c=1h
1s=1nt
2s=?

why not allow 2nt and 3c to be natural and nonforcing and all others game forcing?

[MarkDean]

Funny I should see this thread - this just came up bidding in the partnership bidding practice this week.

I had a strong hand and bid 3♠ over 1NT because I thought 2♠ was NF. Partner thought 2♠ would have been forcing, but agreed my treatment made sense afterward.

[Phil]

2♠ isn't forcing, but it doesn't show a bust either. With a really pathetic 5-6, 2♣ should be considered.

[jdonn]

3♠ wouldn't have been forcing so 2♠ isn't forcing. It shows a minimum range opener.

There is no hand where you are too weak to bid 2♠, but as others have pointed out suit quality can be a consideration.

[gnasher]

mike777, on Feb 25 2009, 01:44 PM, said:

I find it difficult to think responder made a free bid of 1nt over a nonforcing 1s and now when opener rebids 2s we can pass.

that means responder has made two free bids(nonforced bids) over opener's bids.

So you play that the 1NT rebid shows a better hand than the 1♥ response? If so, what would responder do with xx Jxxxx KQ10xx x (an intentionally extreme example)?