[Chamaco]

Hi all,
strongclubber folks !!!!

I have a question on a Viking Club sequence.

In VK, after the opening 1♦, responder's 1♥ is ambiguous, being either:

a ) natural, 6+ hcp, 4+ hearts, any hand OR
b ) game force, does not guarantee ♥.

Opener will rebid naturally, assuming responder has hand a) (= 4+ hearts, may be minimum):

a ) raise ♥ with 4 ♥
b ) bid ♠ if having 4 spades
c ) bid NT with a (semi)balanaced hand w/o majors
d ) bid 2♣ with 54/45 or better in minors (excluding hands with 6+♣, going through a 2♣ opening)
e ) bid 2♦ with a 6+ ♦, no side 4-bagger

Now the question is:

Assume bidding goes
1♦:1♥:2♣ (opener has the minors)

IMPS, Vulnerable vs not

What is responder supposed to bid with, say:

1)
♠ xxx
♥ AJxx
♦ Qx
♣ xxx

2)
♠ xxx
♥ AJxx
♦ xxx
♣ Qx

3)
♠ xxx
♥ AJxx
♦ Qxxx
♣ x

The problem is: how does responder get to a weak signoff ?
- hand 1: the least of evils ay be pass, but in
- hand 2: we do not know whether we are in a 4-2 fit
- hand 3: after 1♦:1♥:2♣ , 2♦ would be a relay for disribution, so we cannot bid 2♦ (and in VK 1♦:2♦ would be an invitational raise, not a weak one)

Thanks !!

[csdenmark]

In first 2 cases you have no other choice than the relay suit 2♦ for a minor signoff. I think 1+2 a little white lie would be correct bidding 1NT(6-11,bal) instead of the relay suit. Then you will probably have pass. 1NT or 2 ♥ not much of a difference.

Case 3 you pass or raise for preempt but not the relay.

I doubt you with this combined strength will reach 2 rounds without interference and then you will have an option for a pass.