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is this a forcing pass

Poll: is this a forcing pass (40 member(s) have cast votes)

is this a forcing pass

  1. yes (32 votes [80.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 80.00%

  2. no (8 votes [20.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 20.00%

  3. depends on vulnerability (explain) (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

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#1 User is offline   Apollo81 

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Posted 2009-February-11, 15:22

(p) 1d (2c) x
(3c) 4h p p
(5c) p

is opener's pass forcing?
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#2 User is offline   TylerE 

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Posted 2009-February-11, 15:24

I don't think it's forcing, since opener has strong ways of getting to 4 over 3.
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#3 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2009-February-11, 15:30

Definitely forcing. It's not just about what we have bid, look at the opponents' auction, RHO of opener's tried to stop in 3 and let himself be pushed to 5. The odds he is simply walking the dog on some huge hand are teeny compared to the odds he was just hoping we wouldn't bid game and is sacrificing.
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#4 User is offline   kfay 

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Posted 2009-February-11, 15:36

In an ideal world I think yes.

This is clearly a sacrifice and when the opponents are definitely sacrificing I play forcing passes.
Kevin Fay
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#5 User is offline   JLOL 

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Posted 2009-February-11, 15:39

yes
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#6 User is online   awm 

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Posted 2009-February-11, 15:44

Forcing.

Why did opener bid 4? It makes no sense that he was trying to sacrifice. Sacrifice over what? 4 is below 5, the opponents have already exchanged plenty of information, and it sounds like the strength is equally divided (or opener's side has more).

So 4 was bid to make. This by itself is usually enough to create a forcing pass. Also, if opener has some freak hand where he was hoping to make 4 based on shape (like a 5-6 in the reds) he probably would've already bid 5 over 5. So the pass suggests he was bidding to make based on values. This reinforces the idea that pass should be forcing.
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#7 User is offline   Echognome 

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Posted 2009-February-11, 16:05

jdonn, on Feb 11 2009, 01:30 PM, said:

Definitely forcing. It's not just about what we have bid, look at the opponents' auction, RHO of opener's tried to stop in 3 and let himself be pushed to 5. The odds he is simply walking the dog on some huge hand are teeny compared to the odds he was just hoping we wouldn't bid game and is sacrificing.

Agree with this reasoning.
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#8 User is offline   skjaeran 

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Posted 2009-February-11, 16:59

Clearly forcing. For reasons explained by Josh and others above.
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Harald
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#9 User is offline   OleBerg 

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Posted 2009-February-12, 02:57

Not forcing.

Opener should be allowed to gamble 4 with playing strength, something like:

x
Kxxx
AQJxxx
xx


A double by opener would not be penalty, but simply show that 4 were bid to made (typically (semi-)balanced and strong). Sometimes partner can bid 5 with the right values.
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We should always assume 2/1 unless otherwise stated, because:

- If the original poster didn't bother to state his system, that means that he thinks it's obvious what he's playing. The only people who think this are 2/1 players.


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#10 User is offline   dake50 

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Posted 2009-February-12, 05:53

Pass over 5C shows 0-1c club(CA), not particularly looking higher. X if not. Cannot imagine partner passing here so acting as 'forcing pass' even not defined such.
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#11 User is offline   Edmunte1 

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Posted 2009-February-12, 07:54

Obviously forcing as long as we bid a voluntary game and opps are sacrificing to level 5
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#12 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2009-February-12, 08:36

yes, forcing

but I would add: focing unless opponents are vulnerable and we are not.
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#13 User is offline   uday 

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Posted 2009-February-12, 08:44

Did the negative X guarantee 4+4+ in the majors? The Master Solvers Club in the Bridge World seems to be full of people who blithely make such doubles with 43 in the majors.

If it didn't, would opener still jump to 4H with only 4 hearts?

What would opener do with a light shapely 6-5 hand with 5 hearts?

How light could negative doubler be for his double ( with perfect shape? )

I'm of course coming around to claiming that since responder might have "nothing" , and since opener must bid game here with all light 6-5s and well as with more balanced hands with extras, it is weird to think that the FP could be intelligently used here.

Another way to look at it is:

IF this is a FP, opener is inviting 5. But has he shown anything about his hand type? How can responder make an intelligent decision?

FPs dont make any sense unless the guy being "F'd" has some basis for a decision.
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#14 User is offline   InTime 

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Posted 2009-February-12, 08:55

100% forcing. Look at the auction. The 1 opener's partner gave a negative double (showing some life). The 2 overcaller's partner did not give a cue-bid raise to 3 - so his raise must be limited. Obviously, the 5 is a sacrifice.
If partner would wanted to sacrifice, he would first bid 3 and then 4 if needed. 4 must be a strong bid. With his pass he is looking towards his partner for help. He has done his work. Partner must now act.
Regards
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#15 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2009-February-12, 10:43

No offense to anyone but it's really awful to think this isn't a forcing pass.

Look at LHO's (assuming we are the negative doubler) bidding!!!

"I would like to play this hand in 3."
...
"Now that the opponents have bid game, I would like to play this hand in 5."

He is sacrificing! So pass is forcing. The observation that the opponents are sacrificing is 100% indisputable. To think pass isn't forcing you have to completely ignore that.

Everyone so far who has said not forcing has tried to analyze what our partner has, or what he could have done. But how our side got to game is 100% irrelevent, you don't even have to consider it. The only reason to consider it now is to decide what partner might have for his forcing pass.
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#16 User is offline   uday 

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Posted 2009-February-12, 11:08

I'm convinced but i can't UNDO my vote :)

I was sure I was right until I spoke to FG, who said pretty much what Jdonn said.

It is an FP situation bec. of the weird 5C call, which trumps everything else.

Had overcaller bid 5C (not what happened here) FG says it would not create a force.

Glad this didn't happen to me at the table before I ran into this thread.
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#17 User is offline   H_KARLUK 

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Posted 2009-February-12, 11:15

Not really. Okay jumped to 4, then strong free rebid likely 5-5 in reds. But why could not use cheaper 4 ?
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#18 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2009-February-12, 11:19

Yeah. File under:

1. Weird auctions are forcing (like some yahoo reraises a preempt or makes a 2nd raise).

2. When a passed hand sacs, it creates a force.
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#19 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2009-February-12, 11:27

uday, on Feb 12 2009, 12:08 PM, said:

I'm convinced but i can't UNDO my vote :)

I was sure I was right until I spoke to FG, who said pretty much what Jdonn said.

It is an FP situation bec. of the weird 5C call, which trumps everything else.

Had overcaller bid 5C (not what happened here) FG says it would not create a force.

Glad this didn't happen to me at the table before I ran into this thread.

Sorry if I was hard on anyone. :) I would definitely agree with you (meaning your original answer) if west had made a stronger raise (like say 2NT showing limit raise+ in clubs), since then he could have been intending to bid 5 all along. Or if, as Fred said, the overcaller had bid 5 himself.
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#20 User is offline   OleBerg 

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Posted 2009-February-12, 12:26

jdonn, on Feb 12 2009, 06:43 PM, said:

No offense to anyone but it's really awful to think this isn't a forcing pass.

Look at LHO's (assuming we are the negative doubler) bidding!!!

"I would like to play this hand in 3."
...
"Now that the opponents have bid game, I would like to play this hand in 5."

He is sacrificing! So pass is forcing. The observation that the opponents are sacrificing is 100% indisputable. To think pass isn't forcing you have to completely ignore that.

Everyone so far who has said not forcing has tried to analyze what our partner has, or what he could have done. But how our side got to game is 100% irrelevent, you don't even have to consider it. The only reason to consider it now is to decide what partner might have for his forcing pass.

LOL
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Do not underestimate the power of the dark side. Or the ninth trumph.

Best Regards Ole Berg

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We should always assume 2/1 unless otherwise stated, because:

- If the original poster didn't bother to state his system, that means that he thinks it's obvious what he's playing. The only people who think this are 2/1 players.


Gnasher
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