[InTime]

Scoring: MP

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Playing 2/1 (not actually relevant here).

Holding as East the above hand, the bidding:-

West.....North.....East.......South
Pass......1H.........1S.........Pass
2D.........Pass.......?

Will you regard the 2D as forcing or not?
Reasoning if possible will also be appreciated.
Regards

[jdonn]

Definitely not forcing by a passed hand, since essentially no natural bid is ever forcing by a passed hand for obvious reasons. If partner were an unpassed hand then there is a clear expert consensus for nonforcing, although not universal. The general idea is when you have overcalled, your priority isn't nearly as much to get to game as it is when you have opened, but much more focused on finding a good spot to play so you can safely interfere as often as possible.

[Phil]

2/1's after a overcall are usually not forcing. Especially by a passed hand. Its inconceivable a maximum 10-11 point hand can force an 8 count to bid.

I now bid 3♦.

I wouldn't have overcalled on this hand. ♥9xxx and no spade spots are a red flag.

[mtvesuvius]

I play it as NF Constructive. With the given hand, I bid 3♦.

[Apollo81]

By a passed hand it is clearly a non-forcing bid, as are all other bids by a passed hand.

[InTime]

Thanks for the replies so far. However, I think I have phrased my question incorrectly. Of course the 2D is not forcing. The question should have been asked:-Would you bid on given the above hand or would you pass?

Sorry for the inconvenience.
I am going to open a new Poll.
Regards

[OleBerg]

I find it obvious to bid. I choose 2♥, but will put 2NT back to diamonds.

By the way, be careful to assume a European expert will take 2♦ by a non-passed hand as non-forcing.