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What does 1X - 1Y - 3NT show? System

#1 User is offline   Helmer 

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Posted 2008-December-08, 05:54

Twice during the past week we had a bidding sequens 1X - 1Y - 3NT.

The first one we agreed that the rebid 2NT was the correct bid, as the hand had 18-19 HCP and 2-3-4-4 distribution.

But what does the 3 NT rebid show?

I guess it would be the same meaning for Acol and SAYC - while 2/1 must be different.

Is it the same if it is

1 ♣ - 1 ♦
3 NT

as for

1 ♣ - 1 ♥
3 NT

as for

1 ♥ - 1 ♠
3 NT

I know I have a book (back home) in which it is explained like - thanks partner, you bid the suit in which I am weak (or the reason for which I couldn't open 2NT).
That would say hands like:

♠ AKx - ♥ x - ♦ Ax - ♣ AKQ10xxx

♠ AQ - ♥ KJx - ♦ x - ♣ AK10xxxx

♠ x - ♥ A10 - ♦ KQJ10xxxx - ♣ AK

♠ AKx - ♥ x - ♦ KQJxx - ♣ AK10x

Whats your say? What does the system say - and what is your agreement with your partner?
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#2 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2008-December-08, 06:03

English club players tend to play it as 19 points while 2NT would be 17-18.

Most advanced players play it as a strong singlesuited hand (too strong for 3x) with stoppers in the side suit and (usually) a singleton in partner's suit.
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#3 User is offline   dicklont 

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Posted 2008-December-08, 06:22

Long running opening suit and a stop needed in partners suit.

Incidentally bridgeclues.com shows it today with this example hand:
♠ A2
♥ 2
♦ KJ2
♣ AKQ10862

1♣ - 1♥
3NT

Sometime ago I bid like this on BBO with a random partner who noted that this is the correct 3NT rebid and that most of the time 3NT is misused for 18/19 hands by players who are afraid that their partner will pass 2NT.
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#4 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2008-December-08, 06:44

We had some argument towards this long ago.

Some though that

Ax
x
xxx
AKQxxxx

was enough (me included), but others said that you needed something on the lines of Ax and Kxx on the side suits (a much stronger hand), I moved to the second group now.

Whatever you think, it must be clear that your opening suit must be solid, your hand is not balanced and you think that 3NT is your optimal contract.
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#5 User is offline   david_c 

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Posted 2008-December-08, 07:04

It seems that there are two different styles (three if you count using it to show 19 HCP balanced). In England it's fairly common not to require a solid suit - just a single-suited hand too strong for a jump rebid of the suit. Whereas I've seen many people (like the two posts above) say that they would expect a solid suit for the bid.

This post has been edited by david_c: 2008-December-08, 07:08

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#6 User is offline   y66 

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Posted 2008-December-08, 08:01

Washington Standard (Steve Robinson)

Quote

After 1m 1X, opener's jump to 3N shows a solid or semi-solid seven-card or longer minor with the unbid suits at least partially stopped.

Opener can have as little as 2 J32 A2 AKQ5432 to open 1C and jump to 3N after a 1S response.

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#7 User is offline   kenrexford 

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Posted 2008-December-08, 08:05

Solid+stop+bolster+hole filled?
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#8 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2008-December-08, 08:13

In Acol it shows a solid suit and some outside stops. A 2NT bid shows 18-19 pts. I would bid the same way in 2/1.
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