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Minor Transfer Pre-Accept

#1 User is offline   Quarky 

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Posted 2008-November-21, 16:57

All vuln, you open 1nt with

Q2
KQ76
AJ6
K965

Opps are passing. Your pard responds 2nt, transfer to

Assuming that you play 3 as pre-accept without any other discussion, do you bid 3 or 3 in response?

I thought pre-accepts are specifically showing a good fit for the transferred minor, not the quality of the rest of the hand (as opposed to major transfer SUPER accepts, which are generally not only on a 4card fit but also a max hand). So with AJx support I would bid 3 preaccept. It appears that I'm wrong, can you comment?
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#2 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2008-November-21, 17:05

I reject on this hand. My simple rule is I need a hand where I would accept an invitation in the minor suit, so if partner bids 3 natural invitational and I would pass (as I certainly would on this hand) then I don't preaccept.
Please let me know about any questions or interest or bug reports about GIB.
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#3 User is offline   ArtK78 

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Posted 2008-November-21, 17:35

I preaccept. In my partnerships, the rule is that you preaccept whenever you have a top honor in partner's suit. This one is easy.

Partner may have a reasonable hand for his transfer. He needs to know if his 6 or 7 card suit is producing tricks. If he has KQxxxx and out he will not bid a game. But if he has more, such as a spade honor in addition to his good diamonds, he will bid on if he knows you have the A.

On occasion, you might get to 3NT off the spade suit by preaccepting on this hand. But they still have to take their tricks before you take yours.

By the way, it is my experience that most better players have changed over to bidding the suit with a preacceptance and making the intervening call without the preacceptance.
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#4 User is offline   655321 

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Posted 2008-November-21, 17:48

3, reject.

My rule for accepting a minor suit transfer is that opener needs Aces and Kings, as well as a fitting honor in partner's suit. With only slow cards outside, opener just bids partner's minor.
That's impossible. No one can give more than one hundred percent. By definition that is the most anyone can give.
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#5 User is offline   cherdano 

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Posted 2008-November-21, 17:51

Agree with Josh and 655321, especially the point about quick tricks.
The easiest way to count losers is to line up the people who talk about loser count, and count them. -Kieran Dyke
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#6 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2008-November-21, 18:30

I like to reject with this as well.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#7 User is offline   awm 

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Posted 2008-November-21, 18:32

In fact, I would define my pre-accept as exactly saying "I want to be in game if partner has HHxxxx in his suit and nothing else."

So this would be a hand like:

J98x
AKx
Kxx
Axx

After a diamond transfer I can count nine top tricks if partner has AQxxxx.

If partner has Art's hand (six diamonds to two top honors and an outside card) that leaves partner with something like 8-9 hcp and a six-card suit. That's a game force opposite a strong 1NT.
Adam W. Meyerson
a.k.a. Appeal Without Merit
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#8 User is offline   peachy 

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Posted 2008-November-21, 21:40

I like the agreement to preaccept with Axx, Kxx, or better, with the quality of support being the only facto in the decision. My pre-accept would be to "bid the suit" if preaccepting and "bid in the slot" to deny good support. Not going to dilute the thread and argue the advantages/disadvantages.
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#9 User is offline   benlessard 

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Posted 2008-November-21, 22:59

Easy reject.
From Psych "I mean, Gus and I never see eye-to-eye on work stuff.
For instance, he doesn't like being used as a human shield when we're being shot at.
I happen to think it's a very noble way to meet one's maker, especially for a guy like him.
Bottom line is we never let that difference of opinion interfere with anything."
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#10 User is offline   Infidel 

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Posted 2008-November-22, 11:57

ArtK78, on Nov 21 2008, 11:35 PM, said:




By the way, it is my experience that most better players have changed over to bidding the suit with a preacceptance and making the intervening call without the preacceptance.


Can someone please make the case for this? I've seen it both ways, and can't really convince myself either way is clearly superior. Seems either way gains with one responder hand, loses with another, but it's hard to see which "wrong" way is less damaging.
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#11 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2008-November-22, 12:01

With Arend we play 3C is the worse hand for diamonds. We also bid 2NT with a weak hand that has both minors and then we pass 3C. Don't see any other reasons to do one way or the other.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#12 User is offline   Edmunte1 

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Posted 2008-November-23, 01:26

Reject, completely agree with Adam's post.
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#13 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2008-November-23, 03:10

This question is impossible to answer without knowing the rest of your responses to 1NT. For example some people play transfers, but also play that a 3m response shows 2 of the top 3 invit to 3NT. If that is the case then this hand is a clear accept.
"The King of Hearts a broadsword bears, the Queen of Hearts a rose." W. H. Auden.
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#14 User is offline   benlessard 

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Posted 2008-November-25, 08:37

Quote

This question is impossible to answer without knowing the rest of your responses to 1NT. For example some people play transfers, but also play that a 3m response shows 2 of the top 3 invit to 3NT. If that is the case then this hand is a clear accept.
And lose 2 A and 4/5S ?

partner will bid 3Nt with KQ 6th and K of S. He will bid staymna with 4S.

So unless partner Jxx of S + (spades are 4/4 or you get a non S lead) game will not make.
From Psych "I mean, Gus and I never see eye-to-eye on work stuff.
For instance, he doesn't like being used as a human shield when we're being shot at.
I happen to think it's a very noble way to meet one's maker, especially for a guy like him.
Bottom line is we never let that difference of opinion interfere with anything."
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